Q1. Male gametophyte with least number of cell is present in:
Correct Answer: (c) Lilium is an angiosperm. Angiosperms have the most reduced male gametophyte (pollen grain), consisting of only 2 or 3 cells.
Q2. Flowers showing ornithophily show few characteristic like
Correct Answer: (b)
Ornithophilous (bird-pollinated) flowers are typically brightly colored (often red), produce abundant nectar, and are frequently scent-free or scented with robust structures.
Q3. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
Correct Answer: (b)
Egg cells and antipodal cells are formed via megasporogenesis and female gametogenesis, making both haploid (n).
Q4. Eight nucleate embryo sacs are
Correct Answer: (d)
An 8-nucleate mature embryo sac can develop via monosporic (e.g., Polygonum), bisporic (e.g., Allium), or tetrasporic (e.g., Adoxa) pathways.
Q5. What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?
Correct Answer: (a) Vallisneria exhibits epihydrophily. The female flowers reach the surface of water by long stalks and male flowers/pollen grains are released onto the surface of water and carried passively by water currents to the female flowers.
Q6. Function of filiform apparatus is to:
Correct Answer: (d)
The filiform apparatus present in synergids guides the entry and orientation of the pollen tube into the synergid.
Q7. The endosperm of gymnosperm is
Correct Answer: (b)
In gymnosperms, endosperm is formed before fertilization directly from the female gametophyte, making it haploid (n).
Q8. The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other (i) Pollen grains inside the anther (ii) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (iii) Seed inside the fruit (iv) Embryo sac inside the ovule
Correct Answer: (c)
Pollen grain (haploid gametophyte) inside the anther (diploid sporophyte) and embryo sac (haploid gametophyte) inside the ovule (diploid sporophyte) represent two generations one inside the other.
Q9. The hilum is a scar on the:
Correct Answer: (d)
Hilum is the scar present on the seed coat marking the point of attachment to the funicle (stalk).
Q10. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the synergid?
Correct Answer: (d)
Out of the two male gametes, one fuses with the egg cell (syngamy) to form a zygote, and the other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei of the central cell (triple fusion) to form the primary endosperm nucleus.
Q11. Double fertilization is fusion of
Correct Answer: (d)
Double fertilization involves syngamy (one male gamete + egg) and triple fusion (second male gamete + secondary/polar nucleus).
Q12. Which of the following are the important floral rewards to the animal pollinators?
Correct Answer: (a)
Nectar and edible pollen grains serve as the primary rewards provided by flowers to animal pollinators.
Q13. Embryo sac occurs in
Correct Answer: (c)
The embryo sac (female gametophyte) develops inside the nucellus of the ovule.
Q14. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of
Correct Answer: (c)
Pea is a non-endospermic (exalbuminous) seed in which the endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo.
Q15. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: (b)
Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all, so cross-pollen cannot reach the stigma, making them strictly autogamous.
Q16. Which one of the following statements is not true?
Correct Answer: (a)
Tapetum is the innermost nourishing layer of the anther wall. Dehiscence of anther is helped by the endothecium, not tapetum.
Q17. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous?
Q18. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in
Correct Answer: (d)
In groundnut, cotyledons are eaten; in pomegranate, the juicy outer seed coat (succulent testa) is the edible portion.
Q19. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleuron layer in a plant species with 8 chromosomes in its synergids
Correct Answer: (a)
Synergids are haploid (n = 8). Aleurone layer is part of the endosperm, which is triploid (3n). Thus, 3n = 3 × 8 = 24 chromosomes.
Q20. A diploid female plant and a tetraploid male plant are crossed. The ploidy of endosperm shall be
Correct Answer: (a)
Female plant is 2n, so female polar nuclei are n + n = 2n. Male plant is 4n, so its gamete is 2n. Endosperm = 2n (female) + 2n (male) = 4n (tetraploid).
Q21. Transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is
Correct Answer: (d)
Transfer of pollen from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant is defined as geitonogamy.
Q22. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from
Correct Answer: (b)
In Citrus, apomictic embryos develop by adventive embryony directly from maternal sporophytic cells (nucellus or integument).
Q23. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into ovule?
Correct Answer: (a)
The filiform apparatus secretes chemotropic substances that guide and facilitate the entry of the pollen tube into a synergid.
Q24. Unisexuality of flowers prevents
Correct Answer: (a)
Unisexual flowers on the same plant (monoecious, e.g., castor, maize) prevent autogamy, but do not prevent geitonogamy.
Q25. In oogamy, fertilization involves
Correct Answer: (b)
Oogamy involves fusion of a large, stationary/non-motile female gamete (egg) and a small, active/motile male gamete.
Q26. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into ?
Correct Answer: (b)
The functional haploid megaspore undergoes mitoses to develop into the female gametophyte, known as the embryo sac.
Q27. Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
Correct Answer: (c)
The 7-celled, 8-nucleate Polygonum type embryo sac is monosporic (from 1 functional megaspore) and involves 3 sequential mitotic divisions.
Q28. Advantage of cleistogamy is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Cleistogamous flowers never open; hence, self-pollination takes place assuredly without reliance on external pollinators.
Q29. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants?
Correct Answer: (d)
In vivipary, seeds germinate while still attached to the parent plant, making them impossible to store as dormant seed stock for future sowing.
Q30. Attractants and rewards are required for:
Correct Answer: (a)
Entomophilous (insect-pollinated) flowers require attractants (like bright colors, scent) and rewards (nectar, edible pollen) to attract pollinators.
Q31. Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is
Correct Answer: (a)
Apospory is the formation of a diploid gametophyte directly from vegetative sporophytic tissue without intervening meiosis.
Q32. In angiosperms all the four microspores of tetrad are covered by a layer which is formed by
Correct Answer: (b)
The microspores within a microspore tetrad remain temporarily bound together by a protective callose layer.
Q33. Double fertilization and triple fusion were discovered by
Correct Answer: (b)
Double fertilization was first discovered by S.G. Nawaschin and Guignard in Lilium and Fritillaria species.
Q34. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in -
Correct Answer: (a)
Papaya is dioecious (male and female flowers are borne on separate plants), which prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Q35. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
Correct Answer: (d)
Geitonogamy involves transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. Since all flowers on the plant are genetically identical, it is genetically similar to autogamy.
Q36. Syngamy means
Correct Answer: (a)
Syngamy refers specifically to the complete generative fusion of a male gamete with a female gamete to form a diploid zygote.
Q37. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is called
Correct Answer: (b)
A composite/multiple fruit developing from a hypanthodium inflorescence is termed a syconus (e.g., Fig).
Q38. Meiosis is best observed in dividing
Correct Answer: (d)
Microsporocytes (microspore mother cells) actively undergo meiosis to form microspores, making them ideal to study meiotic stages.
Q39. Male gametophyte of angiosperms is shed as
Correct Answer: (b)
In about 40% of angiosperms, pollen is shed at the 3-celled stage (1 vegetative cell and 2 male gametes). In the majority, it is shed at 2-celled stage.
Q40. Fertilization involving carrying of male gametes by pollen tube is
Correct Answer: (b)
Siphonogamy is the mode of fertilization in seed plants where non-motile male gametes are carried to the egg cell through a pollen tube.
Q41. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
Correct Answer: (a)
Pollen shed at the 2-celled stage undergoes a mitotic division in the generative cell inside the pollen tube to form two male gametes, successfully carrying out double fertilization.
Q42. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe shaped and the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other?
Correct Answer: (a)
In an amphitropous ovule, curvature occurs in both the ovule body and embryo sac, giving the embryo sac a distinct horseshoe shape.
Q43. Geitonogamy involves:
Correct Answer: (a)
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower on the same plant.
Q44. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube was still formed because
Correct Answer: (a)
The vegetative cell controls pollen tube growth and development. Thus, destroying the generative cell leaves pollen tube formation intact.
Q45. Point out the odd one?
Correct Answer: (d)
Nucellus, embryo sac, and micropyle are components of the female reproductive organ (ovule), whereas pollen grain represents the male gametophyte.
Q46. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Sporopollenin present in the exine of pollen grains resists physical, chemical, and enzymatic degradation under extreme conditions.
Q47. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed setting is assured in
Correct Answer: (a) Commelina bears cleistogamous flowers that do not open, guaranteeing self-pollination and assured seed set even without pollinators.
Q48. Double fertilization is
Correct Answer: (c)
Double fertilization is characteristic of angiosperms, comprising syngamy (egg + male gamete) and triple fusion (polar nuclei + male gamete).
Q49. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
Correct Answer: (a)
In a hemitropous (or hemianatropous) ovule, the body of the ovule turns by 90° so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle.
Q50. Female gametophyte of angiosperms is represented by
Correct Answer: (c)
In angiosperms, the 7-celled, 8-nucleate embryo sac represents the female gametophyte.
Q51. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
Correct Answer: (a)
Nucellar polyembryony (formation of additional embryos from nucellus) is widely reported in Citrus species.
Q52. Wind pollination is common in
Correct Answer: (c)
Wind pollination (anemophily) is very common in grasses (Gramineae/Poaceae).
Q53. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
Correct Answer: (d)
Pollen grains can be stored for long periods in liquid nitrogen at -196°C (cryopreservation) in pollen banks for crop breeding programs.
Q54. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
Correct Answer: (a)
In a hemitropous ovule, the body of the ovule is oriented perpendicular (at right angles) to the stalk/funicle.
Q55. Double fertilization is characteristic of
Correct Answer: (a)
Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon feature observed exclusively in Angiosperms.
Q56. Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after
Correct Answer: (a)
The diploid megaspore mother cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis (meiotic division) to produce four haploid megaspores.
Q57. Number of meiotic divisions required to produce 200/400 seeds of Pea would be
Correct Answer: (d)
To form N seeds, N pollen grains (from N/4 meiotic divisions) and N functional megaspores (from N meiotic divisions) are needed. Total meiotic divisions = N + (N/4) = 5N/4. For 200 seeds: 5(200)/4 = 250. For 400 seeds: 5(400)/4 = 500.
Q58. In angiosperms pollen tubes liberate their male gametes into the
Correct Answer: (d)
The pollen tube releases its contents, including two male gametes, directly into the cytoplasm of one of the synergids.
Q59. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by
Correct Answer: (d)
Wind-pollinated plants usually possess a single or few ovules in an ovary and produce large quantities of light pollen grains.
Q60. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct Answer: (a)
Multiple pollen tubes of the same species can germinate and grow through the style, although typically only one fertilizes an embryo sac.
Q61. Which one of the following statements is not true?
Correct Answer: (c)
Honey is made by honeybees primarily from flower nectar (sugars), not by digesting pollen grains.
Q62. Wind pollinated flowers are
Correct Answer: (b)
Anemophilous (wind-pollinated) flowers are small, non-showy, lack nectar, and produce abundant light, dry, non-sticky pollen grains.
Q63. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm, and caruncle is
Correct Answer: (c)
Castor (Ricinus communis) seed contains endosperm, persistent perisperm, and an outgrowth at the micropylar end called caruncle.
Q64. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
Correct Answer: (c)
Filiform apparatus comprises finger-like wall projections localized in the synergids at the micropylar tip of the embryo sac.
Q65. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is
Correct Answer: (a)
A typical 8-nucleate female gametophyte has 3 nuclei at the micropylar end (egg apparatus), 2 central polar nuclei, and 3 nuclei at the chalazal end (antipodals), i.e., 3 + 2 + 3.
Q66. Which is correct?
Correct Answer: (a)
Gametes are invariably haploid single cells containing a single set of chromosomes (n).
Q67. Double fertilisation leading to initiation of endosperm in Angiosperms require
Correct Answer: (b)
Endosperm initiation in standard angiosperms requires triple fusion: the fusion of two haploid polar nuclei with the second male gamete.
Q68. The viability of seeds is tested by
Correct Answer: (c)
TTC (2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride) tests seed viability by detecting respiratory dehydrogenase enzyme activity in living embryos.
Q69. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is
Correct Answer: (b)
Cypsela is a dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit characteristic of Asteraceae, derived from a bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary.
Q70. Anemophily type of pollination is found in
Correct Answer: (d)
Coconut (palms) exhibits anemophily (wind pollination). Salvia is entomophilous and Vallisneria is hydrophilous.
Q71. In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
Correct Answer: (c)
Papaya is a dioecious plant (male and female flowers are borne on separate plants), which prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Q72. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: (c)
Tapetum is the innermost wall layer of the microsporangium which provides nutrition to developing microspores/pollen grains.
Q73. Animal vectors are required for pollination in
Correct Answer: (d)
Cucumber relies on biotic animal pollinators (mainly bees) for effective pollination. Maize/mulberry are wind-pollinated, and Vallisneria is water-pollinated.
Q74. Tegmen develops from
Correct Answer: (c)
In bitegmic seeds, the inner seed coat layer (tegmen) develops from the inner integument of the ovule.
Q75. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called
Correct Answer: (b)
Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower on the same individual plant.
Q76. Which of the following pair has haploid structures?
Correct Answer: (b)
Antipodal cells and the egg cell are haploid (n) components of the female gametophyte.
Q77. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac?
Correct Answer: (c)
The pollen tube penetrates into the embryo sac by entering through one of the degenerating synergid cells.
Q78. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of
Correct Answer: (a)
The haploid generative cell divides mitotically to yield two functional male gametes.
Q79. Development of an organism from female gamete/egg without involving fertilization is
Correct Answer: (d)
Development of a complete organism directly from an unfertilized female gamete (egg) is called parthenogenesis.
Q80. Study of formation, growth and development of new individual from an egg is
Correct Answer: (b)
Embryology is the study of gamete development, fertilization, and embryonic development of organisms.
Q81. Nucellar embryo is
Correct Answer: (d)
Nucellar embryos arise apomictically from diploid maternal nucellus tissue without meiosis or syngamy; hence they are apomictic diploids.
Q82. Which of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: (d)
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic substances known; it resists high temperatures, strong acids, alkalis, and enzymatic degradation.
Q83. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :
Correct Answer: (a)
Dioecious plants produce male and female flowers on different individual plants, thereby completely preventing both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Q84. Ovule is straight with funiculus, embryo sac, chalaza and micropyle lying on one straight line. It is
Correct Answer: (a)
In an orthotropous (atropous) ovule, the micropyle, chalaza, embryo sac, and funicle all lie in a single straight vertical line.
Q85. The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at
Correct Answer: (d)
The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle at the point called hilum. It represents the junction between the ovule and funicle.
Q86. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
Correct Answer: (b)
Persistent remnant of nucellus found in mature seeds (such as black pepper, beet) is called perisperm.
Q87. In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to
Correct Answer: (c)
Archesporial cells divide periclinally to produce primary parietal cells (forming sporangium wall layers) and primary sporogenous cells.
Q88. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of:
Correct Answer: (c)
Filiform apparatus is special cellular thickenings found at the micropylar tip of synergid cells in the embryo sac.
Q89. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
Correct Answer: (a)
The single shield-shaped cotyledon found in grass/cereal seeds (maize, wheat) is called the scutellum.
Q90. Parthenogenesis is
Correct Answer: (d)
Parthenogenesis is defined specifically as the development of an embryo directly from an unfertilized egg cell.
Q91. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is
Correct Answer: (c)
Entry of the pollen tube into the ovule through the micropyle is termed porogamy.
Q92. Megasporangium is equivalent to:
Correct Answer: (c)
In seed-bearing plants, the integumented megasporangium is morphologically equivalent to the ovule.
Q93. Which plant will lose its economic value if its fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy?
Correct Answer: (b)
In pomegranate, the edible part is the fleshy seed coat (testa). Induced parthenocarpy produces seedless fruits, destroying its commercial value.
Q94. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a number of:
Correct Answer: (a)
The syconus fruit of fig consists of a hollow fleshy receptacle containing numerous true single-seeded fruits called achenes.
Q95. Male gametophyte of angiosperms/monocots is
Correct Answer: (c)
The microspore (pollen grain) is the first cell of the male gametophytic generation in angiosperms.
Q96. Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of
Correct Answer: (c)
In mature seeds, the micropyle remains as a small pore through which water and oxygen enter during seed germination.
Q97. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary and has seeds with succulent testa in
Correct Answer: (a)
Pomegranate (Balausta) is a chambered, multilocular fruit with seeds possessing edible fleshy succulent testa.
Q98. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule ?
Correct Answer: (b)
An anatropous ovule is inverted 180°, positioning the micropyle downward, facing close to the hilum.
Q99. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the mature seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, are characteristic features of
Correct Answer: (a)
Cycads (e.g., Cycas) are gymnosperms characterized by large top-shaped multiciliated male gametes and seeds containing two cotyledons.
Q100. One of the most resistant biological material is
Correct Answer: (d)
Sporopollenin present in the outer exine layer of pollen grains is an extremely stable biopolymer highly resistant to chemical and physical degradation.
Q101. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in:
Correct Answer: (a)
In coconut, the seed coat/fruit wall is hard and fibrous/woody, not thin and membranous.
Q102. Chief pollinators of agricultural crops are
Correct Answer: (b)
Bees (specifically honeybees) are the primary insect pollinators of agricultural crops worldwide.
Q103. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic division in ten microspore mother cells?
Correct Answer: (c)
Each microspore mother cell undergoes 1 meiotic division to produce 4 pollen grains. Thus, 10 MMCs produce 10 × 4 = 40 pollen grains.
Q104. Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to
Correct Answer: (a)
Adventive polyembryony in Citrus arises when extra embryos develop directly from maternal nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac.
Q105. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates:
Correct Answer: (b)
Sexual reproduction involves meiosis and fertilization, which generates new genetic combinations resulting in genetic variation.
Q106. The polyembryony commonly occurs in
Correct Answer: (a)
Polyembryony (presence of more than one embryo in a seed) occurs very commonly in Citrus fruits.
Q107. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be
Correct Answer: (d)
Female plant is 4n, so polar nuclei are 2n + 2n = 4n. Male plant is 2n, so male gamete is n. Endosperm ploidy = 4n + n = 5n (pentaploid).
Q108. What is the function of germ pore?
Correct Answer: (c)
Germ pores are regions on the exine lacking sporopollenin through which the intine emerges to initiate the growth of the pollen tube.
Q109. Which ones produces androgenic haploids in anther cultures?
Correct Answer: (d)
Young haploid pollen grains (microspores) give rise to androgenic haploid plants in anther culture procedures.
Q110. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
Correct Answer: (d)
Microspore mother cells (MMCs) become enclosed by a thick callose wall prior to undergoing meiotic division.
Q111. Perisperm differs from endosperm in;
Correct Answer: (b)
Perisperm is persistent maternal nucellar tissue and is diploid (2n), whereas angiosperm endosperm is triploid (3n).
Q112. Total number of meiotic division required for forming 100 zygotes/100 grains of wheat is
Correct Answer: (c)
For 100 zygotes, 100 male gametes (from 25 meiotic divisions in MMCs) and 100 female gametes (from 100 meiotic divisions in MMCs) are needed. Total meiotic divisions = 25 + 100 = 125.
Q113. Pollination occurs in
Correct Answer: (c)
Pollination is a specialized feature exclusive to seed plants, namely Gymnosperms and Angiosperms.
Q114. Albuminous seeds store their reserve food mainly in
Correct Answer: (b)
Albuminous (endospermic) seeds retain endosperm at maturity as the main food-storage tissue.
Q115. In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 100 pollen grains
Correct Answer: (a)
Mango is a fleshy simple fruit known as a drupe, developing from a monocarpellary superior ovary with a hard stony endocarp.
Q117. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilisation development in flowering plants is incorrect?
Correct Answer: (d)
Post-fertilization, ovules develop into seeds (not embryo sac; embryo sac is present inside the ovule prior to fertilization).
Q118. Non-albuminous seed is produced in:
Correct Answer: (d)
Non-albuminous (exalbuminous) seeds consume the endosperm completely during embryo development, e.g., pea, bean, gram.
Q119. Which of the following statements is not true about somatic embryogenesis?
Correct Answer: (c)
Somatic embryos develop strictly from somatic vegetative cells, whereas microspores are haploid reproductive cells (and form androgenic embryos).
Q120. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Wind-pollinated (anemophilous) flowers generally have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
Q121. In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the formation of
Correct Answer: (b)
Triple fusion results in the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN), which develops into the nutritive endosperm tissue.
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