Q1. Chemically an antibody is a
Correct Answer: (c)
Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are specialized protein molecules composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains.
Antibodies (immunoglobulins) are specialized protein molecules composed of heavy and light polypeptide chains.
Q2. Interferons are
Correct Answer: (a)
Interferons are host-coded antiviral proteins.
Interferons are host-coded antiviral proteins.
Q3. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
Correct Answer: (a)
T-cell-mediated immune response (CMI) is primary cause for organ graft rejection.
T-cell-mediated immune response (CMI) is primary cause for organ graft rejection.
Q4. If all ponds and puddles are destroyed, the organism likely to be destroyed is
Correct Answer: (d)
Female Anopheles mosquitoes require stagnant water bodies (ponds/puddles) for egg laying and larval development; destroying these habitats halts Plasmodium transmission.
Female Anopheles mosquitoes require stagnant water bodies (ponds/puddles) for egg laying and larval development; destroying these habitats halts Plasmodium transmission.
Q5. In which one of the following pairs of diseases both are caused by viruses ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Measles (caused by Rubeola virus) and Rabies (caused by Rabies lyssavirus) are both viral infections.
Measles (caused by Rubeola virus) and Rabies (caused by Rabies lyssavirus) are both viral infections.
Q6. Motile zygote of Plasmodium occurs in:
Correct Answer: (a)
Fertilization of micro- and macrogametocytes occurs inside the stomach/gut of female Anopheles, producing a motile zygote called an ookinete.
Fertilization of micro- and macrogametocytes occurs inside the stomach/gut of female Anopheles, producing a motile zygote called an ookinete.
Q7. Typhoid fever is caused by
Correct Answer: (a)
Typhoid fever is caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Salmonella typhi.
Typhoid fever is caused by the Gram-negative bacillus Salmonella typhi.
Q8. Read the following four statements (A-D):
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens.
(B) Chikungunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium.
(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants.
(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice.
How many of the above statements are wrong?
Correct Answer: (a)
Statements (A) and (B) are wrong. Colostrum is rich in IgA antibodies (not antigens) and Chikungunya is caused by an arbovirus (not bacteria).
Statements (A) and (B) are wrong. Colostrum is rich in IgA antibodies (not antigens) and Chikungunya is caused by an arbovirus (not bacteria).
Q9. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
Correct Answer: (a)
Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses and AIDS is caused by HIV (both viral).
Common cold is caused by Rhinoviruses and AIDS is caused by HIV (both viral).
Q10. Select the correct statement from the ones given below?
Correct Answer: (b)
Morphine is a effective opioid analgesic administered to post-surgical patients to manage severe acute pain.
Morphine is a effective opioid analgesic administered to post-surgical patients to manage severe acute pain.
Q11. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is
Correct Answer: (b)
Alkaline phosphatase is a widely used enzyme reporter reagent in ELISA.
Alkaline phosphatase is a widely used enzyme reporter reagent in ELISA.
Q12. Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesised by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is chemically synthesized by the acetylation of morphine.
Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is chemically synthesized by the acetylation of morphine.
Q13. Which of the following symptoms indicate radiation sickness?
Correct Answer: (d)
Acute radiation exposure causes skin burns/ulcerations, damage to rapidly dividing GI mucosa (nausea), bone marrow suppression (anaemia), and hair follicle damage (alopecia).
Acute radiation exposure causes skin burns/ulcerations, damage to rapidly dividing GI mucosa (nausea), bone marrow suppression (anaemia), and hair follicle damage (alopecia).
Q14. Which of the following viruses is not transferred through semen of an infected male?
Correct Answer: (b)
Chikungunya virus is an arbovirus transmitted by Aedes mosquito vector bites and not through seminal fluid.
Chikungunya virus is an arbovirus transmitted by Aedes mosquito vector bites and not through seminal fluid.
Q15. What is true about T-lymphocytes in mammals?
Correct Answer: (b)
Major T-cell subtypes include CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, CD4+ helper T cells, and regulatory/suppressor T cells.
Major T-cell subtypes include CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, CD4+ helper T cells, and regulatory/suppressor T cells.
Q16. Increased asthmatics attacks in certain seasons are related to
Correct Answer: (b)
Inhalation of airborne seasonal pollen allergens causes IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation triggering asthma.
Inhalation of airborne seasonal pollen allergens causes IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation triggering asthma.
Q17. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.
| Column-I | Column-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Typhoid | (i) Wuchereria |
| (b) Pneumonia | (ii) Plasmodium |
| (c) Filariasis | (iii) Salmonella |
| (d) Malaria | (iv) Haemophilus |
Correct Answer: (a)
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, Pneumonia by Haemophilus influenzae / Streptococcus pneumoniae, Filariasis by Wuchereria bancrofti, and Malaria by Plasmodium species.
Typhoid is caused by Salmonella typhi, Pneumonia by Haemophilus influenzae / Streptococcus pneumoniae, Filariasis by Wuchereria bancrofti, and Malaria by Plasmodium species.
Q18. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?
Correct Answer: (a)
Snakebites require urgent administration of antivenom containing preformed antibodies (passive immunization).
Snakebites require urgent administration of antivenom containing preformed antibodies (passive immunization).
Q19. Human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) has a protein coat and a genetic material which is
Correct Answer: (c)
HIV possesses two identical single-stranded RNA (+ssRNA) molecules as its genetic material.
HIV possesses two identical single-stranded RNA (+ssRNA) molecules as its genetic material.
Q20. In hot summer and cold winter, the number of malaria cases as well as Anopheles declines, reappearance of malaria in humid warm conditions is due to
Correct Answer: (b)
Sporozoites survive within overwintering/persisting female mosquito vectors, initiating infection cycles when favorable conditions return.
Sporozoites survive within overwintering/persisting female mosquito vectors, initiating infection cycles when favorable conditions return.
Q21. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
Correct Answer: (a)
Sporozoites develop inside oocysts on the mosquito stomach wall, migrate to the salivary glands, and reside in the saliva ready to infect humans.
Sporozoites develop inside oocysts on the mosquito stomach wall, migrate to the salivary glands, and reside in the saliva ready to infect humans.
Q22. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is
Correct Answer: (a)
Gametogony (gamete maturation and fertilization) and sporogony take place within the female Anopheles host.
Gametogony (gamete maturation and fertilization) and sporogony take place within the female Anopheles host.
Q23. Retroviruses are implicated as a cause for cancer in humans because they
Correct Answer: (b)
Retroviruses can pick up cellular proto-oncogenes or integrate near them, causing aberrant oncogene expression.
Retroviruses can pick up cellular proto-oncogenes or integrate near them, causing aberrant oncogene expression.
Q24. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
Correct Answer: (a)
Lymphatic filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, leading to chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels.
Lymphatic filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by Wuchereria bancrofti transmitted by Culex mosquitoes, leading to chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels.
Q25. The cell in the human body invaded by the human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) is
Correct Answer: (a)
HIV target cells express surface CD4 receptors, primarily CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes.
HIV target cells express surface CD4 receptors, primarily CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes.
Q26. Diptheria is caused by
Correct Answer: (a)
Diphtheria exotoxin is released by actively multiplying extracellular Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells into surrounding tissues.
Diphtheria exotoxin is released by actively multiplying extracellular Corynebacterium diphtheriae cells into surrounding tissues.
Q27. Which one of the following diseases is now considered nearly eradicated from India?
Correct Answer: (c)
Smallpox was officially declared globally eradicated by the WHO in 1980.
Smallpox was officially declared globally eradicated by the WHO in 1980.
Q28. A cell coded protein formed in response to infection with most animal viruses is
Correct Answer: (c)
Interferons are host cell-coded antiviral defense proteins.
Interferons are host cell-coded antiviral defense proteins.
Q29. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that enters the human body is
Correct Answer: (a)
Plasmodium enters the human body as infectious sporozoites through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Plasmodium enters the human body as infectious sporozoites through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q30. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy, a bovine disease is related to which human disease?
Correct Answer: (b)
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) and human Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) are neurodegenerative prion disorders.
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) and human Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) are neurodegenerative prion disorders.
Q31. Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that:
Correct Answer: (d)
Pneumonia affects alveolar air sacs filling them with fluid, whereas rhinovirus infections causing common cold remain confined to the upper respiratory tract.
Pneumonia affects alveolar air sacs filling them with fluid, whereas rhinovirus infections causing common cold remain confined to the upper respiratory tract.
Q32. L. S. D. is
Correct Answer: (a)
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a powerful hallucinogenic compound.
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a powerful hallucinogenic compound.
Q33. MALT constitutes about _____ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
Correct Answer: (d)
Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) lines major tracts (digestive, respiratory, urogenital) and constitutes ~50% of total human lymphoid tissue.
Mucosa-Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) lines major tracts (digestive, respiratory, urogenital) and constitutes ~50% of total human lymphoid tissue.
Q34. Which of the following statements is not true for retroviruses?
Correct Answer: (a)
Retroviruses convert their RNA genome into complementary DNA using reverse transcriptase during replication.
Retroviruses convert their RNA genome into complementary DNA using reverse transcriptase during replication.
Q35. Hypersensitivity to an allergen is associated with
Correct Answer: (a)
Allergy/hypersensitivity reflects an exaggerated, inappropriate immune response to non-harmful environmental antigens.
Allergy/hypersensitivity reflects an exaggerated, inappropriate immune response to non-harmful environmental antigens.
Q36. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?
Correct Answer: (a)
Measuring gamma-globulin levels in serum globulin fractions detects immunodeficiency states.
Measuring gamma-globulin levels in serum globulin fractions detects immunodeficiency states.
Q37. Which one of the following is an opiate narcotic?
Correct Answer: (b)
Morphine is an opiate narcotic derived directly from opium latex.
Morphine is an opiate narcotic derived directly from opium latex.
Q38. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity?
Correct Answer: (b)
Trichinella spiralis is viviparous; females release live larvae directly into the intestinal mucosa which then migrate to skeletal muscle.
Trichinella spiralis is viviparous; females release live larvae directly into the intestinal mucosa which then migrate to skeletal muscle.
Q39. Which of the following pair is not correctly matched?
Correct Answer: (c)
Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum (bacterium); Trichuris trichiura is a parasitic whipworm.
Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum (bacterium); Trichuris trichiura is a parasitic whipworm.
Q40. Which one of the following acts as a physiological barrier to the entry of micro-organisms in human body?
Correct Answer: (b)
Tears containing lysozyme along with gastric HCl and saliva act as physiological barriers.
Tears containing lysozyme along with gastric HCl and saliva act as physiological barriers.
Q41. Which of the following is most infectious disease?
Correct Answer: (a)
Hepatitis B virus is highly infectious and easily transmitted via contaminated body fluids, blood transfusions, or needle contact.
Hepatitis B virus is highly infectious and easily transmitted via contaminated body fluids, blood transfusions, or needle contact.
Q42. Amoebiasis is prevented by
Correct Answer: (c)
Amoebiasis spreads via fecal-oral ingestion of cysts; drinking boiled/clean water prevents transmission.
Amoebiasis spreads via fecal-oral ingestion of cysts; drinking boiled/clean water prevents transmission.
Q43. Identify the site where Wuchereria bancrofti is normally found on human body
Correct Answer: (a)
Adult filarial worms reside in the lymphatic vessels, predominantly in the lower limbs and groin region.
Adult filarial worms reside in the lymphatic vessels, predominantly in the lower limbs and groin region.
Q44. Ringworm in humans is caused by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Ringworm is caused by dermatophytic fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton.
Ringworm is caused by dermatophytic fungi belonging to genera Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton.
Q45. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
Correct Answer: (a)
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is standard initial screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies.
ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is standard initial screening test to detect anti-HIV antibodies.
Q46. Give the correct matching of causative agent/germ and disease
Correct Answer: (d)
Filariasis is caused by the parasite Wuchereria bancrofti.
Filariasis is caused by the parasite Wuchereria bancrofti.
Q47. Which one of the sexually transmitted diseases is correctly matched with its pathogen?
Correct Answer: (b)
Syphilis is accurately paired with its causative spirochete Treponema pallidum.
Syphilis is accurately paired with its causative spirochete Treponema pallidum.
Q48. If a certain person shows production of interferons in his body, the chances are that he has got an infection of
Correct Answer: (b)
Measles is a viral disease; host cells synthesize interferons specifically during viral infections.
Measles is a viral disease; host cells synthesize interferons specifically during viral infections.
Q49. Damage to thymus in a child may lead to:
Correct Answer: (d)
Thymic ablation prevents differentiation of functional T-lymphocytes, destroying cell-mediated immunity.
Thymic ablation prevents differentiation of functional T-lymphocytes, destroying cell-mediated immunity.
Q50. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
Correct Answer: (c)
Rampant viral replication depletes T-helper cell count drastically, leading to onset of AIDS symptoms.
Rampant viral replication depletes T-helper cell count drastically, leading to onset of AIDS symptoms.
Q51. To which type of barriers under innate immunity, do the saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes, belong?
Correct Answer: (c)
Saliva, tears, and gastric acid are fluid secretions categorized under physiological barriers.
Saliva, tears, and gastric acid are fluid secretions categorized under physiological barriers.
Q52. Which one of the following depresses brain activity and produced feelings of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness?
Correct Answer: (b)
Valium (benzodiazepine tranquilizer) enhances GABA activity, depressing central nervous system function to produce sedation.
Valium (benzodiazepine tranquilizer) enhances GABA activity, depressing central nervous system function to produce sedation.
Q53. Malaria fever coincides with liberation of
Correct Answer: (c)
Synchronous rupture of RBCs releases merozoites along with toxic haemozoin into blood, inducing paroxysms of fever and chills.
Synchronous rupture of RBCs releases merozoites along with toxic haemozoin into blood, inducing paroxysms of fever and chills.
Q54. Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to
Correct Answer: (a)
High mitotic rate makes cancer cells hypersensitive to radiation-induced DNA damage.
High mitotic rate makes cancer cells hypersensitive to radiation-induced DNA damage.
Q55. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
Correct Answer: (a)
Antibiotics specifically target metabolic/cellular pathways of bacteria and have no efficacy against viral pathogens such as Rhinoviruses.
Antibiotics specifically target metabolic/cellular pathways of bacteria and have no efficacy against viral pathogens such as Rhinoviruses.
Q56. Which one of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in human milk?
Correct Answer: (b)
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin present in colostrum and mature breast milk.
IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin present in colostrum and mature breast milk.
Q57. Which one of the following is an Indian medicinal plant ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha) is an indigenous Indian medicinal plant used for hypertension and psychiatric conditions.
Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha) is an indigenous Indian medicinal plant used for hypertension and psychiatric conditions.
Q58. Cells involved in immune mechanism are
Correct Answer: (b)
Lymphocytes (B cells and T cells) are the central functional cellular elements of adaptive immunity.
Lymphocytes (B cells and T cells) are the central functional cellular elements of adaptive immunity.
Q59. The use of Cannabis products (bhang, ganja, charas, marijuana or hashish) causes
Correct Answer: (b)
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain, altering cognitive perceptions, thoughts, and moods.
Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors in the brain, altering cognitive perceptions, thoughts, and moods.
Q60. A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering
Correct Answer: (a)
Immediate post-exposure prophylaxis for tetanus involves giving preformed anti-tetanus antibodies (ATS) for passive immunity.
Immediate post-exposure prophylaxis for tetanus involves giving preformed anti-tetanus antibodies (ATS) for passive immunity.
Q61. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain
Correct Answer: (d)
Antivenom delivers preformed passive antibodies, whereas oral polio vaccine (OPV) delivers live attenuated polioviruses to induce active immunity.
Antivenom delivers preformed passive antibodies, whereas oral polio vaccine (OPV) delivers live attenuated polioviruses to induce active immunity.
Q62. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by:
Correct Answer: (d)
T-lymphocytes (specifically CD8+ cytotoxic T cells and CD4+ helper T cells) carry out cell-mediated immunity.
T-lymphocytes (specifically CD8+ cytotoxic T cells and CD4+ helper T cells) carry out cell-mediated immunity.
Q63. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from
Correct Answer: (d)
Antihistamines and corticosteroids suppress inflammatory mast-cell chemical mediators (histamine), controlling allergic symptoms.
Antihistamines and corticosteroids suppress inflammatory mast-cell chemical mediators (histamine), controlling allergic symptoms.
Q64. Which one of the following is correct match?
Correct Answer: (a)
Reserpine (alkaloid from Rauwolfia serpentina) acts as a tranquilizer and antihypertensive drug.
Reserpine (alkaloid from Rauwolfia serpentina) acts as a tranquilizer and antihypertensive drug.
Q65. The 'blue baby' syndrome results from
Correct Answer: (a)
High nitrate levels in drinking water react with hemoglobin to form methaemoglobin, which cannot bind oxygen properly, causing cyanosis ('blue baby syndrome').
High nitrate levels in drinking water react with hemoglobin to form methaemoglobin, which cannot bind oxygen properly, causing cyanosis ('blue baby syndrome').
Q66. Who discovered Plasmodium in R.B.C of human beings?
Correct Answer: (c)
Alphonse Laveran in 1880 discovered the malarial parasite in human red blood cells.
Alphonse Laveran in 1880 discovered the malarial parasite in human red blood cells.
Q67. Hybridoma cells are
Correct Answer: (b)
Hybridomas are created by fusing antibody-producing B-lymphocytes with cancerous myeloma cells to manufacture monoclonal antibodies.
Hybridomas are created by fusing antibody-producing B-lymphocytes with cancerous myeloma cells to manufacture monoclonal antibodies.
Q68. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from
Correct Answer: (d)
Ajmalicine and reserpine are pharmaceutical alkaloids extracted from Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha).
Ajmalicine and reserpine are pharmaceutical alkaloids extracted from Rauwolfia serpentina (Sarpagandha).
Q69. Select the wrong statement:
Correct Answer: (d)
Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971, not by D.J. Ivanowski (who recognized tobacco mosaic disease agent in 1892).
Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener in 1971, not by D.J. Ivanowski (who recognized tobacco mosaic disease agent in 1892).
Q70. Obstacle to large scale transplantation of organs is
Correct Answer: (b)
Immunological graft rejection by host T cells against donor HLA complexes is the main obstacle in transplantation.
Immunological graft rejection by host T cells against donor HLA complexes is the main obstacle in transplantation.
Q71. Which of the following immune responses is responsible for rejection of kidney graft?
Correct Answer: (d)
Cell-mediated immunity mediated by T-lymphocytes recognizes foreign HLA markers on donor tissue and mounts graft rejection.
Cell-mediated immunity mediated by T-lymphocytes recognizes foreign HLA markers on donor tissue and mounts graft rejection.
Q72. Correctly match sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen?
Correct Answer: (a)
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted bacterial disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted bacterial disease caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum.
Q73. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: (c)
Malignant tumor cells detach and travel via blood/lymph to form secondary tumors (metastasis).
Malignant tumor cells detach and travel via blood/lymph to form secondary tumors (metastasis).
Q74. The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same kingdom of organisms as that of
Correct Answer: (c)
Microsporum (fungi causing ringworm) belongs to Kingdom Fungi, same as the mould Rhizopus.
Microsporum (fungi causing ringworm) belongs to Kingdom Fungi, same as the mould Rhizopus.
Q75. Which of the following diseases is caused by a protozoan?
Correct Answer: (b)
Babesiosis is a malaria-like illness caused by intraerythrocytic protozoans of the genus Babesia.
Babesiosis is a malaria-like illness caused by intraerythrocytic protozoans of the genus Babesia.
Q76. Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to:
Correct Answer: (a)
Cell-mediated immune response destroys non-self foreign allografts.
Cell-mediated immune response destroys non-self foreign allografts.
Q77. Which one of the following is categorised as a parasite in true sense?
Correct Answer: (c)
Head louse (Pediculus humanus capitis) is an obligate ectoparasite spending its entire life cycle on human host skin/hair.
Head louse (Pediculus humanus capitis) is an obligate ectoparasite spending its entire life cycle on human host skin/hair.
Q78. For which of the following disease, there is preventive vaccine?
Correct Answer: (b)
Recombinant Hepatitis B subunit vaccine (containing HBsAg) is widely available for effective immunization.
Recombinant Hepatitis B subunit vaccine (containing HBsAg) is widely available for effective immunization.
Q79. Vaccines are
Correct Answer: (a)
Vaccines contain killed/attenuated micro-organisms or purified microbial antigenic proteins used to induce active immunity.
Vaccines contain killed/attenuated micro-organisms or purified microbial antigenic proteins used to induce active immunity.
Q80. Match the disease in Column I with the appropriate items (pathogen/prevention/treatment) in Column II.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| 1. Amoebiasis | (i) Treponema pallidum |
| 2. Diphtheria | (ii) Use only sterilized food and water |
| 3. Cholera | (iii) DPT Vaccine |
| 4. Syphilis | (iv) Use oral rehydration therapy |
Correct Answer: (d)
Amoebiasis is prevented by hygiene/clean food & water; Diphtheria is prevented by DPT vaccine; Cholera is treated with ORS; Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum.
Amoebiasis is prevented by hygiene/clean food & water; Diphtheria is prevented by DPT vaccine; Cholera is treated with ORS; Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum.
Q81. Reason of lung cancer
Correct Answer: (a)
Asbestos fiber exposure causes pulmonary asbestosis and lung cancers / mesotheliomas.
Asbestos fiber exposure causes pulmonary asbestosis and lung cancers / mesotheliomas.
Q82. Malignant tertian malarial parasite is
Correct Answer: (a)
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria, the most severe and potentially fatal form.
Plasmodium falciparum causes malignant tertian malaria, the most severe and potentially fatal form.
Q83. A sexually transmitted disease caused by bacteria is
Correct Answer: (c)
Syphilis is a bacterial STD caused by Treponema pallidum.
Syphilis is a bacterial STD caused by Treponema pallidum.
Q84. Interferons are synthesized in response to
Correct Answer: (c)
Interferons ($\alpha$, $\beta$, $\gamma$) are specialized signaling proteins produced by host cells upon viral infection.
Interferons ($\alpha$, $\beta$, $\gamma$) are specialized signaling proteins produced by host cells upon viral infection.
Q85. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the newborn infants because it contains:
Correct Answer: (d)
Colostrum is rich in secretory IgA antibodies which confer natural passive immunity protecting the infant\'s gastrointestinal tract.
Colostrum is rich in secretory IgA antibodies which confer natural passive immunity protecting the infant\'s gastrointestinal tract.
Q86. Asthma may be attributed to
Correct Answer: (b)
Asthma is caused by allergen-induced activation of mast cells in the lungs, releasing histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes which cause bronchoconstriction.
Asthma is caused by allergen-induced activation of mast cells in the lungs, releasing histamine, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes which cause bronchoconstriction.
Q87. AIDS is caused by HIV that principally infects:
Correct Answer: (d)
HIV selectively infects T4 lymphocytes (CD4+ T-helper cells).
HIV selectively infects T4 lymphocytes (CD4+ T-helper cells).
Q88. Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1-4 are correctly categorized with one exception in it?
| Items | Category | Exception |
|---|---|---|
| (a) UAA, UAG, UGA | Stop codons | UAG |
| (b) Kangaroo, Koala, Wombat | Australian marsupials | Wombat |
| (c) Plasmodium, Cuscuta, Trypanosoma | Protozoan parasites | Cuscuta |
| (d) Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria | Bacterial diseases | Diphtheria |
Correct Answer: (c)
Plasmodium and Trypanosoma are protozoan parasites, whereas Cuscuta is a parasitic angiospermic plant (exception).
Plasmodium and Trypanosoma are protozoan parasites, whereas Cuscuta is a parasitic angiospermic plant (exception).
Q89. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity.
Correct Answer: (a)
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) and monocytes act as cellular barriers in innate immunity.
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) and monocytes act as cellular barriers in innate immunity.
Q90. The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
Correct Answer: (c)
The letter 'T' stands for Thymus, the primary lymphoid organ where T-progenitor cells undergo maturation and selection.
The letter 'T' stands for Thymus, the primary lymphoid organ where T-progenitor cells undergo maturation and selection.
Q91. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
Correct Answer: (a)
The plant pictured is Datura, known for containing tropane alkaloids that act as hallucinogens.
The plant pictured is Datura, known for containing tropane alkaloids that act as hallucinogens.
Q92. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because they are
Correct Answer: (b)
Ionizing radiation preferentially kills rapidly dividing cells by damaging their DNA during mitosis.
Ionizing radiation preferentially kills rapidly dividing cells by damaging their DNA during mitosis.
Q93. Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?
Correct Answer: (d)
HIV targets and infects CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes, leading to progressive immune decline.
HIV targets and infects CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes, leading to progressive immune decline.
Q94. Salmonella is related with
Correct Answer: (a)
Salmonella typhi is the bacterial pathogen responsible for enteric/typhoid fever.
Salmonella typhi is the bacterial pathogen responsible for enteric/typhoid fever.
Q95. Widal Test is carried out to test:
Correct Answer: (d)
The Widal test is a diagnostic blood agglutination test used to detect serum antibodies against Salmonella typhi.
The Widal test is a diagnostic blood agglutination test used to detect serum antibodies against Salmonella typhi.
Q96. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted disease?
Correct Answer: (c)
Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain usually caused by viral infections and is not transmitted sexually.
Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain usually caused by viral infections and is not transmitted sexually.
Q97. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon:
Correct Answer: (d)
Trophozoites (active form) of Entamoeba histolytica secrete histolysin, invade mucosal and submucosal layers of the colon, and phagocytose red blood cells.
Trophozoites (active form) of Entamoeba histolytica secrete histolysin, invade mucosal and submucosal layers of the colon, and phagocytose red blood cells.
Q98. Schizogony stage of Plasmodium occurs in human cells
Correct Answer: (c)
Asexual schizogony occurs first in hepatic parenchymal cells (exo-erythrocytic) and subsequently inside RBCs (erythrocytic schizogony).
Asexual schizogony occurs first in hepatic parenchymal cells (exo-erythrocytic) and subsequently inside RBCs (erythrocytic schizogony).
Q99. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?
Correct Answer: (a)
Hashish (cannabinoid) alters perception and causes hallucinations.
Hashish (cannabinoid) alters perception and causes hallucinations.
Q100. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
Correct Answer: (d)
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) derived from ergot fungus is a potent hallucinogen.
Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) derived from ergot fungus is a potent hallucinogen.
Q101. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:
| Disease | Vaccine Type |
|---|---|
| (A) Tuberculosis | (i) Harmless virus |
| (B) Whooping cough | (ii) Inactivated toxin |
| (C) Diphtheria | (iii) Killed bacteria |
| (D) Polio | (iv) Harmless bacteria |
Correct Answer: (b)
TB vaccine (BCG) uses harmless live attenuated bacteria; Whooping cough vaccine uses killed bacteria; Diphtheria vaccine contains inactivated toxoid; Sabin/Salk polio vaccines use virus preparations.
TB vaccine (BCG) uses harmless live attenuated bacteria; Whooping cough vaccine uses killed bacteria; Diphtheria vaccine contains inactivated toxoid; Sabin/Salk polio vaccines use virus preparations.
Q102. Carcinoma refers to
Correct Answer: (c)
Carcinomas are malignant tumors arising from epithelial tissues covering body surfaces, skin, or lining mucous membranes.
Carcinomas are malignant tumors arising from epithelial tissues covering body surfaces, skin, or lining mucous membranes.
Q103. Which one of the following is not correctly matched
Correct Answer: (d)
Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is transmitted by sandflies (Phlebotomus), not by Anopheles mosquitoes.
Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar) is transmitted by sandflies (Phlebotomus), not by Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q104. Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained from:
Correct Answer: (d)
Cocaine is a natural coca alkaloid extracted from leaves of Erythroxylum coca.
Cocaine is a natural coca alkaloid extracted from leaves of Erythroxylum coca.
Q105. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Cancer cells show active expression/upregulation of telomerase enzyme (not inhibition), granting infinite proliferative potential.
Cancer cells show active expression/upregulation of telomerase enzyme (not inhibition), granting infinite proliferative potential.
Q106. It is not possible to apply Koch's postulates to
Correct Answer: (c)
Mycobacterium leprae (causative agent of leprosy) cannot be cultured on artificial cell-free media, failing Koch's second postulate.
Mycobacterium leprae (causative agent of leprosy) cannot be cultured on artificial cell-free media, failing Koch's second postulate.
Q107. Passive immunity was discovered by
Correct Answer: (a)
Edward Jenner demonstrated vaccination principles; however, Emil von Behring (with Kitasato) discovered serum therapy / passive immunity against diphtheria toxin.
Edward Jenner demonstrated vaccination principles; however, Emil von Behring (with Kitasato) discovered serum therapy / passive immunity against diphtheria toxin.
Q108. Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of
Correct Answer: (b)
Chronic heavy consumption of alcohol leads to fatty liver, inflammation, necrosis, and irreversible liver cirrhosis.
Chronic heavy consumption of alcohol leads to fatty liver, inflammation, necrosis, and irreversible liver cirrhosis.
Q109. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?
Correct Answer: (c)
Overt AIDS symptoms appear when progressive loss of CD4+ T-helper cells severely compromises cell-mediated immunity.
Overt AIDS symptoms appear when progressive loss of CD4+ T-helper cells severely compromises cell-mediated immunity.
Q110. Antibodies in our body are complex
Correct Answer: (c)
Antibodies are immunoglobulins, which are structurally complex glycoprotein molecules.
Antibodies are immunoglobulins, which are structurally complex glycoprotein molecules.
Q111. During blood typing agglutination indicates that the
Correct Answer: (a)
Agglutination occurs when specific antiserum antibodies bind matching surface antigen proteins present on RBC membranes.
Agglutination occurs when specific antiserum antibodies bind matching surface antigen proteins present on RBC membranes.
Q112. Analgesic drugs
Correct Answer: (b)
Analgesic drugs selectively relieve pain without causing loss of consciousness.
Analgesic drugs selectively relieve pain without causing loss of consciousness.
Q113. Which of the following diseases is due to an allergic reaction?
Correct Answer: (c)
Hay fever (allergic rhinitis) is an allergic hypersensitivity reaction triggered by plant pollen.
Hay fever (allergic rhinitis) is an allergic hypersensitivity reaction triggered by plant pollen.
Q114. Identify the correct pair representing the causative agent of typhoid fever and the confirmatory test for typhoid.
Correct Answer: (d)
Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi and is diagnosed through the Widal test (serological agglutination test).
Typhoid is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi and is diagnosed through the Widal test (serological agglutination test).
Q115. Which one of the following option gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative organism and mode of infection?
Correct Answer: (b)
Pneumonia spreads via droplet infection/aerosols inhaled from an infected person.
Pneumonia spreads via droplet infection/aerosols inhaled from an infected person.
Q116. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells whereas the remaining three are?
Correct Answer: (d)
Contact inhibition is a normal cellular property lost by malignant cancer cells, allowing them to form tumors.
Contact inhibition is a normal cellular property lost by malignant cancer cells, allowing them to form tumors.
Q117. Sarcoma is cancer of
Correct Answer: (b)
Sarcomas are malignant cancers originating from mesodermal connective tissues (bones, cartilage, muscles, fat).
Sarcomas are malignant cancers originating from mesodermal connective tissues (bones, cartilage, muscles, fat).
Q118. Small proteins produced by vertebrate cells in response to viral infections inhibiting viral multiplication are known as
Correct Answer: (c)
Interferons block viral protein synthesis and replication in adjacent uninfected cells.
Interferons block viral protein synthesis and replication in adjacent uninfected cells.
Q119. Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralise pathogens. Still innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it
Correct Answer: (d)
Innate immunity provides non-specific frontline defenses, using Natural Killer (NK) cells, phagocytes, and physical/chemical barriers.
Innate immunity provides non-specific frontline defenses, using Natural Killer (NK) cells, phagocytes, and physical/chemical barriers.
Q120. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.
Correct Answer: (b)
Active immunity develops slowly and takes time to reach peak protective efficiency, whereas passive immunity delivers immediate protection.
Active immunity develops slowly and takes time to reach peak protective efficiency, whereas passive immunity delivers immediate protection.
Q121. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:
Correct Answer: (d)
Infection occurs by ingesting soil, water, or fresh uncooked vegetables contaminated with embryonated eggs of Ascaris.
Infection occurs by ingesting soil, water, or fresh uncooked vegetables contaminated with embryonated eggs of Ascaris.
Q122. Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant is categorised as
Correct Answer: (c)
Transplacental maternal IgG and milk IgA grant natural passive immunity to the recipient.
Transplacental maternal IgG and milk IgA grant natural passive immunity to the recipient.
Q123. If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidences?
Correct Answer: (c)
Antibodies belong to immunoglobulins located in the serum globulin protein fraction.
Antibodies belong to immunoglobulins located in the serum globulin protein fraction.
Q124. Select the correct statement with respect to diseases and immunisation?
Correct Answer: (a)
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies with help from T-helper cells; damage to both destroys adaptive antibody responses.
B-lymphocytes produce antibodies with help from T-helper cells; damage to both destroys adaptive antibody responses.
Q125. Which one of the following conditions though harmful in itself, is also a potential saviour from a mosquito borne infectious disease ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Heterozygotes for sickle cell trait (HbS) have deformed RBCs that hinder Plasmodium falciparum proliferation, providing survival advantage against lethal malaria.
Heterozygotes for sickle cell trait (HbS) have deformed RBCs that hinder Plasmodium falciparum proliferation, providing survival advantage against lethal malaria.
Q126. HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying:
Correct Answer: (b)
HIV attaches to CD4 receptors on T-helper lymphocytes, replicating inside and destroying them, resulting in immunodeficiency.
HIV attaches to CD4 receptors on T-helper lymphocytes, replicating inside and destroying them, resulting in immunodeficiency.
Q127. In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to
Correct Answer: (c)
Loss of self-tolerance causes auto-immune disease (e.g., Rheumatoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis).
Loss of self-tolerance causes auto-immune disease (e.g., Rheumatoid arthritis, Myasthenia gravis).
Q128. Widal test is used for the diagnosis of
Correct Answer: (d)
Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies against O and H antigens of Salmonella typhi in patients with typhoid.
Widal test detects agglutinating antibodies against O and H antigens of Salmonella typhi in patients with typhoid.
Q129. ELISA is used to detect viruses, where
Correct Answer: (c)
ELISA utilizes enzyme-conjugated antibodies; alkaline phosphatase or horseradish peroxidase serve as key enzymatic reagents.
ELISA utilizes enzyme-conjugated antibodies; alkaline phosphatase or horseradish peroxidase serve as key enzymatic reagents.
Q130. A person showing unpredictable moods, outbursts of emotion, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with other is suffering from
Correct Answer: (a)
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by emotional instability, intense interpersonal conflict, and unpredictable mood swings.
Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is characterized by emotional instability, intense interpersonal conflict, and unpredictable mood swings.
Q131. Botulism caused by Clostridium botulinum affects the
Correct Answer: (b)
Botulinum neurotoxin inhibits acetylcholine release at neuromuscular junctions, causing flaccid paralysis.
Botulinum neurotoxin inhibits acetylcholine release at neuromuscular junctions, causing flaccid paralysis.
Q132. Opiate narcotic is
Correct Answer: (c)
Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is a semi-synthetic opiate narcotic.
Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is a semi-synthetic opiate narcotic.
Q133. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug "Smack"?
Correct Answer: (b)
Smack/Heroin is synthesized from morphine, which is extracted from dried latex of unripe seed capsules of Papaver somniferum.
Smack/Heroin is synthesized from morphine, which is extracted from dried latex of unripe seed capsules of Papaver somniferum.
Q134. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use.
(a)
(b)
(a)
(b)
| Option | Molecule | Source | Use |
|---|---|---|---|
| (a) | (a) Cocaine | Erythroxylum coca | Accelerates transport of dopamine |
| (b) | (b) Heroin | Cannabis sativa | Depressant and slows down body functions |
| (c) | (b) Cannabinoid | Atropa belladonna | Produces hallucinations |
| (d) | (a) Morphine | Papaver somniferum | Sedative and pain killer |
Correct Answer: (d)
Structure (a) represents Morphine derived from Papaver somniferum, used as a powerful sedative and potent analgesic/painkiller.
Structure (a) represents Morphine derived from Papaver somniferum, used as a powerful sedative and potent analgesic/painkiller.