Q1. From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask
[2020]
Correct Answer: (d)
In 1953, Stanley Miller created electric discharge in a closed flask containing methane (CH4), hydrogen (H2), ammonia (NH3), and water vapor at 800°C, which produced amino acids.
Q2. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of
[2020]
Correct Answer: (a)
Flippers of penguins (birds) and dolphins (mammals) perform similar functions but have different anatomical origins, making them analogous organs formed through convergent evolution.
Q3. Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (a) Herbicide resistant weeds. (b) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (c) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs. (d) Darwin's Finches of Galapagos islands.
[2020]
Correct Answer: (d)
Herbicide resistant weeds, drug resistant eukaryotes, and man-created breeds of dogs are results of human activities (anthropogenic actions). Darwin's finches evolved through natural adaptive radiation.
Q4. A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following condition will lead to adaptive radiation?
[2019]
Correct Answer: (d)
Adaptive radiation occurs when an ancestral species encounters multiple vacant habitats with varied environmental pressures, allowing rapid diversification into new forms.
Q5. In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as
[2019]
Correct Answer: (a)
When adaptive radiation occurs in isolated placental mammals and Australian marsupials occupying similar ecological niches, they independently evolve similar traits, demonstrating convergent evolution.
Q6. In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
[2019]
Correct Answer: (b)
Stabilising selection favors intermediate phenotypes (3 to 3.3 kg) over extreme variations (low birth weight or very high birth weight), reducing phenotypic variance.
Q7. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
[2018]
Correct Answer: (b)
Hugo de Vries proposed that evolution occurs in large, single-step discontinuous variations called saltation (single-step large mutation).
Q8. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option:
[2018]
Correct Answer: (c)
The eyes of octopus, bat, and man are analogous organs that evolved independently due to convergent evolution, not divergent evolution.
Q9. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
[2018]
Correct Answer: (a)
Forelimbs of various vertebrates share a fundamental anatomical pattern (homology) derived from a common ancestor, modified for different lifestyle needs.
Q10. Which of the following represents order of Horse?
[2017]
Correct Answer: (a)
Horse belongs to Order Perissodactyla, Family Equidae, Genus Equus, and Species ferus caballus.
Q11. Which of the following structures is homologous to the wing of a bird?
[2016]
Correct Answer: (d)
Wings of birds and flippers of whales are modified pentadactyl forelimbs sharing a common structural framework and origin, making them homologous.
Q12. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life: (A) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes. (B) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen. Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
[2016]
Correct Answer: (c)
The primitive atmosphere was reducing without free oxygen, so initial life forms were anaerobic heterotrophs. Subsequent early autotrophs were chemoautotrophs that did not split water or release oxygen.
Q13. Analogous structures are a result of
[2016]
Correct Answer: (b)
Analogous structures perform similar functions in unrelated organisms as a response to similar environmental selection pressures, representing convergent evolution.
Q14. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of:
[2014]
Correct Answer: (c)
These forelimbs share the same basic skeletal pattern and origin across different vertebrate lineages despite performing varied functions, identifying them as homologous organs.
Q15. Which one of the following are analogous structures?
[2014]
Correct Answer: (b)
Gills of prawn (arthropod) and lungs of man (vertebrate) perform the function of respiration but differ entirely in structure and origin, making them analogous.
Q16. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of:
[NEET 2013]
Correct Answer: (b)
The octopus eye and mammal eye differ in retinal development and structural layout but perform similar visual functions, making them analogous organs arising via convergent evolution.
Q17. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in response to a common environmental challenge, is called:
[NEET 2013]
Correct Answer: (a)
Convergent evolution is the process where distantly related species independently develop similar physical traits (adaptations) to solve similar ecological challenges.
Q18. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as:
[NEET 2013]
Correct Answer: (a)
Random or chance fluctuations in allele frequencies within a gene pool from generation to generation are defined as genetic drift (Sewall Wright effect).
Q19. According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to:
[NEET 2013]
Correct Answer: (d)
Darwin emphasized that competition among individuals of the same species (intraspecific competition) for identical requirements is a primary driving force of natural selection.
Q20. Random unidirectional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially in small populations is known as
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Correct Answer: (d)
Genetic drift operates strongly in small populations where chance events cause notable shifts in gene frequencies independently of selection value.
Q21. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following is not a finch food?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Correct Answer: (b)
Galapagos finches adapted to feed on seeds, insects, tree buds, cactus nectar, and blood, but none feed on decaying animal flesh (carrion).
Q22. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas is known as:
[2012]
Correct Answer: (a)
Adaptive radiation describes the diversification of an ancestral stock into varied ecological forms radiating into different habitats.
Q23. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent evolution?
[2012]
Correct Answer: (a)
Eyes of octopus and mammals share function without origin (convergent); forelimb bones of vertebrates share origin while functioning differently (divergent).
Q24. The idea of mutations was brought forth by
[2012M]
Correct Answer: (b)
Hugo de Vries proposed the Mutation Theory based on his studies on the evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana).
Q25. Darwin's finches are a good example of:
[2010]
Correct Answer: (c)
Darwin's finches are classic examples of adaptive radiation, evolving varied beak shapes adapted to different food niches on the Galapagos Islands.
Q26. Peripatus is a connecting link between:
[2009]
Correct Answer: (b) Peripatus exhibits segmented nephridia like annelids and chitinous cuticle/tracheae like arthropods, serving as a transitional link.
Q27. Which one of the following scientists name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
[2008]
Correct Answer: (a)
August Weismann proposed the Theory of Continuity of Germplasm, disproving Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired somatic traits.
Q28. Darwinian finches are an excellent example of
[2008]
Correct Answer: (a)
Darwin's finches illustrate adaptive radiation, where a common ancestor diversified into different species occupying unique ecological niches.
Q29. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita are example of
[2008]
Correct Answer: (b)
Both thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita originate from axillary buds (homologous), modified for defense and support respectively.
Q30. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
[2008]
Correct Answer: (c)
Nephridia in earthworms and Malpighian tubules in cockroaches are both specialized excretory structures.
Q31. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and microspheres) as envisaged in the biogenic origin of life?
[2008]
Correct Answer: (a)
Protobionts could isolate internal chemical environments from surroundings, but lacked precise self-replicating genetic systems required for true biological reproduction.
Q32. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the phenomenon is termed
[2007]
Correct Answer: (c)
Convergent evolution occurs when unrelated species develop structural/functional similarities due to adaptation to similar environmental niches.
Q33. Which one of the following statement is correct?
[2007]
Correct Answer: (c)
The Biogenetic Law of Ernst Haeckel states that 'Ontogeny repeats phylogeny' (embryonic development reflects ancestral evolutionary history).
Q34. The concept of chemical evolution is based on
[2007]
Correct Answer: (c)
Chemical evolution (Oparin-Haldane hypothesis) states that life originated through gradual chemical reactions converting inorganic molecules to organic polymers under primordial Earth conditions.
Q35. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of
[2007]
Correct Answer: (c)
The adaptive diversification of Galapagos finches provides clear evidence for geographical isolation and biogeographical evolution.
Q36. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo?
[2007]
Correct Answer: (d)
Parrots (birds), platypus (monotreme mammal), and kangaroo (marsupial mammal) are all warm-blooded animals maintaining constant body temperature (homeothermy).
Q37. What is common to whale, seal and shark?
[2007]
Correct Answer: (b)
Whales, seals (mammals), and sharks (cartilaginous fish) belong to distinct taxons but evolved streamlined bodies and swimming structures via convergent evolution for aquatic life.
Q38. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that
[2007]
Correct Answer: (d)
Dark melanic variants of Biston betularia arise through pre-existing or recurring random mutations, which were selected for survival in soot-covered industrial landscapes.
Q39. Adaptive radiation refers to
[2007]
Correct Answer: (a)
Adaptive radiation is the evolutionary process where multiple species diversify from a single common ancestral lineage into diverse roles/niches.
Q40. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is
[2007]
Correct Answer: (b)
Geographical barriers block gene flow between populations, leading to divergence and ultimate reproductive isolation (allopatric speciation).
Q41. Which one of the following amino-acid was not found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment?
[2006]
Correct Answer: (b)
Miller's spark-discharge experiment produced amino acids like glycine, alanine, and aspartic acid, but did not yield glutamic acid.
Q42. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as
[2006]
Correct Answer: (d)
Phylogeny refers to the evolutionary origin and history of a species or group of organisms over geological time.
Q43. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of
[2006]
Correct Answer: (d)
Homologous organs demonstrate common descent with modification, and vestigial organs reveal structural remnants inherited from functional ancestral forms.
Q44. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the incorrect example.
[2005]
Correct Answer: (c)
Poison fangs in snakes are offensive adaptations used for capturing/killing prey, not defensive mechanisms designed to escape predation.
Q45. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
[2005]
Correct Answer: (d)
Spallanzani and Pasteur demonstrated that boiled/heated meat sealed from air shows no spontaneous microbial generation, disproving abiogenesis.
Q46. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
[2005]
Correct Answer: (c)
Widespread emergence of pesticide-resistant insects illustrates natural selection: chemical applications select pre-existing resistant variants in target populations.
Q47. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be used
[2005]
Correct Answer: (c)
Lederbergs' replica plating experiment used streptomycin-containing master plates to demonstrate pre-existing resistant colonies prior to antibiotic exposure.
Q48. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on:
[2005]
Correct Answer: (c)
Hugo de Vries formulated his Mutation Theory after analyzing phenotypic variations in the evening primrose (Oenothera lamarckiana).
Q49. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
[2004]
Correct Answer: (d)
Gilled tadpoles recapitulate ancestral aquatic traits, confirming that amphibians evolved from gilled fish ancestors.
Q50. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
[2004]
Correct Answer: (c)
Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA sequencing provide high precision in establishing timelines for evolutionary history.
Q51. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth
[2004]
Correct Answer: (b)
The primordial atmosphere was strongly reducing and lacked uncombined free molecular oxygen (O2).
Q52. Diversification in plant life appeared
[2004]
Correct Answer: (a)
Plant diversification developed gradually over vast periods of geological time through adaptations to changing terrestrial conditions.
Q53. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because
[2003]
Correct Answer: (c)
Mitochondrial DNA (maternal) and Y-chromosome DNA (paternal) undergo no meiotic recombination, allowing lineage tracking across human evolutionary history.
Q54. Which one of the following sequences was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution?
[2003]
Correct Answer: (b)
Darwinian logic: High reproductive rate (overproduction) leads to competition, keeping population numbers stable; inherited variations yield differential survival (natural selection).
Q55. Industrial melanism is an example of
[2003]
Correct Answer: (d)
Industrial melanism provides protective camouflage (cryptic color matching) against soot-darkened tree trunks to avoid visual predators.
Q56. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change in gene frequency in a non-directional manner?
[2003]
Correct Answer: (c)
Random genetic drift changes allele frequencies unpredictably in non-directional directions due to random sampling effects.
Q57. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
[2003]
Correct Answer: (a)
Dogfish (fish) and whale (mammal) independently evolved streamlined body shapes and fins for aquatic movement (convergent evolution).
Q58. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
[2003]
Correct Answer: (b)
Homologous structures share a common structural architecture and origin, though modified to execute different functional tasks.
Q59. Darwin in his 'Natural Selection Theory' did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic evolution?
[2003]
Correct Answer: (a)
Darwin believed in continuous, small, directional variations and rejected saltatory/discontinuous variations (mutations).
Q60. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from
[2003]
Correct Answer: (c)
Genetic drift occurs due to sampling errors during interbreeding within populations, notably affecting gene allele frequencies in isolated small populations.
Q61. Which of the following are homologous organs?
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Wings of birds and pectoral fins of fish share common vertebrate forelimb bone elements, establishing homology.
Q62. There is no life on moon due to the absence of
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Liquid water is essential for biological biochemical processes and cell structure; its total absence on the moon prevents life.
Q63. Sequence of which of the followings is used to know the phylogeny?
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequence comparisons (e.g., 16S/18S rRNA) are universally used to reconstruct deep phylogenetic relationships.
Q64. Two different species can not live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Gause's Competitive Exclusion Principle states that two species competing for the exact same limiting resource cannot stably coexist.
Q65. Which of the following is most important for speciation?
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Reproductive isolation prevents gene flow between diverging populations, which is essential for true speciation.
Q66. In which condition the gene ratio remains constant for any species?
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
Under Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, panmixia (random mating) maintains stable allele and genotype frequencies over generations.
Q67. Genetic drift operates only in
[1998, 02]
Correct Answer: (a)
Sampling errors causing dramatic allele shifts (genetic drift) are most pronounced in small populations.
Q68. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to
[2002]
Correct Answer: (a)
Pre-existing antibiotic-resistant mutants are naturally selected when exposed to streptomycin-containing environments.
Q69. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates
[2001]
Correct Answer: (c)
Phenotypic similarity in organisms possessing different genetic backgrounds and lineages is the hallmark of convergent evolution.
Q70. Darwin's theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then what shall be correct according to it?
[2001]
Correct Answer: (d)
Pangenesis proposed gemmules as physical carrier particles, mirroring Lamarckian ideas on physical transfer of traits to offspring.
Q71. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
[2001]
Correct Answer: (b)
Continental drift physically isolated South America and Australia, promoting the evolution of unique endemic lineages.
Q72. Half life period of C14 is about
[2001]
Correct Answer: (b)
The radioactive half-life of Carbon-14 (C14) used in radiocarbon dating is approximately 5,730 years (~5000 years).
Q73. Frequency of an allele in a isolated population may change due to
[2001]
Correct Answer: (a)
In a small isolated population lacking gene flow, allele frequencies fluctuate mainly due to random genetic drift.
Q74. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than their parental generation due to
[2001]
Correct Answer: (b)
Mutations are mostly random and deleterious/harmful, often rendering offspring less adapted than their parent generation.
Q75. Which is not a vestigial part in humans?
[2000]
Correct Answer: (b)
Finger nails serve an active functional role (protection of fingertips and grasping objects), whereas coccyx, third molars, and abdominal segmental muscles are vestigial.
Q76. During organ differentiation in Drosophila an organ is often modified to another organ such as wings could be replaced by legs. Genes responsible for such metamorphosis are called
[2000]
Correct Answer: (a)
Homeotic (Hox) genes control anatomical body patterns; mutations in these cause homeotic transformations like legs growing in place of antennae/wings.
Q77. Darwin's finches provide an excellent evidence in favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of
[2000]
Correct Answer: (a)
Galapagos finch diversification serves as a key line of biogeographical evidence for geographic isolation and descent with modification.
Q78. Homologous organs are
[1994, 99]
Correct Answer: (c)
Pectoral fins of fish and forelimbs of horses share homologous bony structures derived from early vertebrate ancestors.
Q79. Phenomenon of 'Industrial melanism' demonstrates
[1999]
Correct Answer: (a)
Industrial melanism in peppered moths is a direct empirical demonstration of directional natural selection in response to environmental pollution.
Q80. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of
[1998]
Correct Answer: (a)
The present atmosphere contains abundant free oxidizing molecular oxygen (O2), which breaks down primitive organic precursor molecules before self-assembly.
Q81. Diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
[1998]
Correct Answer: (d)
Adaptive differences in beak forms among finches demonstrate how natural selection drives adaptive radiation and speciation.
Q82. Which one of the following includes all homologous organs?
[1997]
Correct Answer: (b)
Forelimbs of frogs, birds, and rabbits possess matching limb bone plans (humerus, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals), establishing complete homology.
Q83. The kind of evolution in which two species of different geneology come to resemble one another closely, is termed as
[1996]
Correct Answer: (b)
Evolutionary development of structural resemblance between lineages of different ancestral genealogies is termed convergent evolution.
Q84. Identify the correct sequence in which the following substances have appeared during the course of evolution of life on earth
[1996]
Correct Answer: (b)
Simple chemical gases (NH3) produced amino acids, which polymerized into functional proteins, followed by the synthesis of self-replicating nucleic acids.
Q85. Which one of the following sets includes only the vestigial structures in man?
[1996]
Correct Answer: (c)
Coccyx, nictitating membrane (plica semilunaris), vermiform appendix, and auricular muscles are non-functional vestigial organs in humans.
Q86. Extremities, tail and ear are relatively shorter in animals living in cooler regions as compared to those inhabiting warmer zones. This is
[1996]
Correct Answer: (d)
Allen's Rule states that endothermic animals in cold climates have shorter extremities/appendages to minimize surface heat loss.
Q87. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
[1995]
Correct Answer: (b)
Embryonic pharyngeal gill slits across all vertebrate groups support the Recapitulation Theory ('ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny').
Q88. The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
[1995]
Correct Answer: (b)
Homologous organs share a common embryological origin and fundamental anatomical pattern.
Q89. The closely related morphologically similar sympatric populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated as
[1995]
Correct Answer: (d)
Sibling species are morphologically indistinguishable sympatric populations that cannot interbreed due to complete reproductive isolation.
Q90. The change of the light-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to
[1995]
Correct Answer: (a)
The melanic variant (carbonaria) originally arose through a gene mutation, which provided selective survival value during industrial pollution.
Q91. Frequency of a character increases when it is
[1994]
Correct Answer: (d)
Natural selection increases the frequency of traits that confer higher fitness and adaptability to the organism in its environment.
Q92. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
[1994]
Correct Answer: (d)
Industrial melanism in peppered moths operates via Darwinian selection of pre-existing genetic mutations, contradicting Lamarck's use and disuse inheritance.
Q93. Two geographical regions separated by high mountains are
[1994]
Correct Answer: (b)
The Himalayan mountain range forms a physical boundary separating the Palaearctic realm (north) from the Oriental realm (south).
Q94. Golden era/age of reptiles is
[1994]
Correct Answer: (b)
The Mesozoic Era (consisting of Triassic, Jurassic, and Cretaceous periods) is known as the 'Age of Reptiles' due to the dominance of dinosaurs.
Q95. Evolutionary convergence is development of
[1993]
Correct Answer: (a)
Evolutionary convergence (convergent evolution) is the independent acquisition of similar functional traits in distinct organisms lacking recent common ancestry.
Q96. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor shortened showing that
[1993]
Correct Answer: (d)
August Weismann's tail-cutting experiment on mice proved that somatic changes acquired during a lifetime are not inherited, disproving Lamarckism.
Q97. Theory of Natural selection dwells on
[1993]
Correct Answer: (c)
Modern synthesis/evolutionary theory links natural selection directly to genetic changes (gene complex variations) that yield heritable traits.
Q98. Genetic drift is change of
[1993]
Correct Answer: (c)
Genetic drift is the allele frequency variation occurring across consecutive generations due to stochastic sampling error.
Q99. The first organisms were
[1992]
Correct Answer: (b)
The earliest life forms were anaerobic chemoheterotrophs that absorbed organic nutrients from the primordial soup.
Q100. Which was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life?
[1991]
Correct Answer: (c)
Molecular oxygen (O2) was completely absent in Earth's initial reducing atmosphere during the origin of life.
Q101. Parallelism is
[1990]
Correct Answer: (d)
Parallelism (parallel evolution) involves independent development of similar adaptive traits in closely related evolutionary lineages.
Q102. Basic principles of embryonic development were pronounced by
[1990]
Correct Answer: (a)
Karl Ernst von Baer formulated laws of embryology, stating general characters appear before specialized traits during development.
Q103. Evolution is
[1989]
Correct Answer: (b)
Evolution represents the complete historical sequence of developmental and structural changes occurring within a lineage across geological time.
Q104. "Continuity of germplasm" theory was given by
[1989]
Correct Answer: (b)
August Weismann proposed the Germplasm Theory, stating that genetic information passes exclusively through germ cells.
Q105. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters was given by
[1989]
Correct Answer: (b)
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed the Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characters (Lamarckism).
Q106. 'Origin of species' was written by
[1989]
Correct Answer: (d)
Charles Darwin authored the seminal evolutionary book 'On the Origin of Species', published in 1859.
Q107. Humming bird and Hawk illustrate
[1988]
Correct Answer: (c)
Hummingbirds and hawks radiate from a common avian ancestor into specialized flying and feeding niches (adaptive radiation).
Q108. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others for escaping from enemies is
[1988]
Correct Answer: (b)
Mimicry is the superficial resemblance of one organism to another organism or object to gain protection against predators.
Q109. Which of the following statements is correct about the origin and evolution of men?
[2019]
Correct Answer: (a)
Neanderthal man lived in near East and Central Asia between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years ago. Agriculture arose around 10,000 years ago; Homo habilis did not eat meat.
Q110. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?
[2019]
Correct Answer: (c)
Given p = 0.4, so q = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6. AA = p2 = (0.4)2 = 0.16 Aa = 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48 aa = q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36.
Q111. Match the hominids with their correct brain size:
(A) Homo habilis
(i) 900 cc
(B) Homo neanderthalensis
(ii) 1350 cc
(C) Homo erectus
(iii) 650-800 cc
(D) Homo sapiens
(iv) 1400 cc
Select the correct option.
[2019]
Correct Answer: (c)
Cranial capacities: Homo habilis = 650-800 cc, Homo neanderthalensis = 1400 cc, Homo erectus = 900 cc, modern Homo sapiens = 1350 cc.
Q112. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:
[2019]
Correct Answer: (b)
According to Hugo de Vries, mutations occur in a random and directionless manner compared to Darwinian variations.
Q113. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?
[2015 RS]
Correct Answer: (c) Homo habilis had a cranial capacity of 650-800 cc, making it the smallest among the given hominids.
Q114. A population will not exist in Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium if:
[2015 RS]
Q115. Industrial melanism is an example of:
[2015 RS]
Correct Answer: (a)
Industrial melanism represents natural selection favoring dark melanic variants in industrial polluted regions.
Q116. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?
[NEET Kar. 2013]
Correct Answer: (d)
Dinosaurs dominated the terrestrial landscape throughout the Mesozoic Era.
Q117. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short stature, heavy eyebrows, retreating foreheads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was
[2012]
Correct Answer: (b)
These morphological traits and time frame (1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago) characterize Homo neanderthalensis.
Q118. What was the most significant trend in evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
[2011]
Correct Answer: (d)
The enlargement of brain capacity (encephalization) was the primary functional evolutionary trend toward modern humans.
Q119. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution. This is an example of:
[2009]
Correct Answer: (d)
Soot on trees favored darker forms by making them less visible to predators, demonstrating natural selection.
Q120. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry?
[2008]
Correct Answer: (a)
Presence of epidermal scales on avian hind legs and shelled cleidoic eggs directly reflect reptilian inheritance.
Q121. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in
[2007]
Correct Answer: (d)
Neanderthal man had a brain capacity averaging ~1400 cc, exceeding 1000 cc.
Q122. Select the correct statement from the following?
[2007]
Correct Answer: (a)
Evolutionary fitness reflects an organism's success in adapting to the environment and being selected by nature for reproduction.
Q123. Jurassic period of the mesozoic era was characterised by
[2006]
Correct Answer: (d)
In the Jurassic Period, gymnosperms dominated vegetation and the earliest birds (e.g., Archaeopteryx) evolved from reptilian ancestors.
Q124. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?
[2006]
Correct Answer: (b) Archaeopteryx is an extinct fossil taxon, whereas Sphenodon, Peripatus, and King Crab (Limulus) are surviving living fossils.
Q125. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils?
[2005]
Correct Answer: (c)
Electron-Spin Resonance (ESR) spectroscopy provides accurate dating of biological fossil remains without destroying samples.
Q126. There are two opposing views about origin of modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were the ancestors of modern man. A study of variation of DNA however suggested African origin of modern man. What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this?
[2005]
Correct Answer: (a)
The highest genomic diversity in African populations indicates that modern humans originated and resided longest in Africa before migrating outwards.
Q127. What kind of evidence suggested that man is more closely related with chimpanzee than with other hominoid apes?
[2004]
Correct Answer: (d)
Comprehensive DNA sequencing across autosomes, sex chromosomes, and mtDNA consistently reveals maximum sequence homology between humans and chimpanzees.
Q128. In which era reptiles were dominant?
[2002]
Correct Answer: (b)
The Mesozoic Era is known as the Age of Reptiles due to the diversification of dinosaurs.
Q129. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man was started from
[2002]
Correct Answer: (c)
Fossil evidence places early hominid origin (such as Australopithecus) in Africa ('Cradle of Humankind').
Q130. Which of following is closest relative of man?
[2001]
Correct Answer: (a)
Chimpanzees show the highest chromosomal banding similarity and DNA homology to humans.
Q131. Which of the following is correct order of evolutionary history of man?
[2001]
Correct Answer: (c)
Evolutionary order: Peking man (Homo erectus) → Heidelberg man → Neanderthal man → Cro-Magnon man.
Q132. Homo sapiens evolved during
[2000]
Correct Answer: (c)
Hominid divergence and early pre-human origins began during the Pliocene epoch.
Q133. Which of the following primate is the closest relative of humans?
[2000]
Correct Answer: (c)
Gorillas (along with Chimpanzees) are the closest living hominoid ape relatives of humans.
Q134. Which one of the following features is closely related with the evolution of humans?
[2000]
Correct Answer: (a)
The loss of a free tail accompanied erect bipedal posture in human evolution.
Q135. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish-like heart, three-chambered frog-like heart and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement be approximated?
[1998]
Correct Answer: (c)
Passing through structural ancestral heart forms during embryonic development exemplifies Haeckel's Biogenetic Law ('Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny').
Q136. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is
[1998]
Correct Answer: (b) Dryopithecus lived approximately 20 to 25 million years ago during the Miocene epoch.
Q137. Which one of the following statements is correct?
[1998]
Correct Answer: (b) Homo erectus represents the direct ancestral species line that gave rise to modern humans (Homo sapiens).
Q138. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by
[1997]
Correct Answer: (a)
High resolution banding patterns of human chromosome numbers 3 and 6 match those of chimpanzees.
Q139. Which one of the following statements about fossil human species is correct?
[1997]
Correct Answer: (d)
In human lineage, Homo habilis evolved first and was succeeded by Homo erectus.
Q140. In the evolution of man, several changes occured in the ancestral characters. Which one of the following changes is irrelevant in this context?
[1996]
Correct Answer: (c)
Dietary shifts to soft food did not act as a primary morphological evolutionary driver compared to bipedalism, brain development, and hand dexterity.
Q141. Which one of the following is regarded as the direct ancestor of modern man?
[1996]
Correct Answer: (a) Homo erectus is regarded as the immediate direct ancestral species of modern Homo sapiens.
Q142. 'Golden Age of Dinosaurs'/Age of reptiles was
[1994]
Correct Answer: (a)
The Mesozoic Era is universally designated as the 'Age of Reptiles / Golden Age of Dinosaurs'.
Q143. The earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of Horse is
[1994]
Correct Answer: (c)
The evolutionary lineage of horses begins with Eohippus (Dawn Horse) in the Eocene epoch.
Q144. Correct order is
[1991]
Correct Answer: (c)
The correct chronological order of geological eras is Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic.