Q2. Match the following regarding water pollination:
Structure
Function
A. Long stalk
(I) Reaches water surface in Vallisneria
B. Mucilaginous covering
(II) Protects pollen from wetting
Correct Answer: (a)
Water pollination adaptations (Page 13).
Q3. Assertion: Dioecy prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Reason: Male and female flowers are present on different plants.
Correct Answer: (a)
Uni-sexual plants ensure cross-pollination only (Page 15).
Q4. Identify true statements for 'True fruits': (i) Develop only from the ovary. (ii) Other floral parts degenerate and fall off. (iii) Mango is an example.
Correct Answer: (a)
Definition of true fruit from Page 20.
Q5. Assertion: Apple and strawberry are called false fruits.
Reason: In these fruits, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Fruits involving parts other than the ovary are 'false' (Page 20).
Q6. Assertion: Emasculation is not required if the female parent produces unisexual flowers.
Reason: Unisexual flowers do not have anthers to remove.
Correct Answer: (a)
Emasculation is the removal of anthers; if none exist, the step is skipped (Page 17).
Q7. Identify correct statements for 'Embryo development': (i) Occurs at the micropylar end of the embryo sac. (ii) Most zygotes divide only after some endosperm is formed. (iii) Stages include proembryo, globular and heart-shaped embryo.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sequential development from Section 1.4.2 (Page 19).
Q8. Regarding 'Megasporogenesis': (i) Meiosis of MMC produces four megaspores. (ii) One remains functional. (iii) Functional megaspore develops into embryo sac.
Correct Answer: (a)
Process of female gametophyte development from Page 9-10.
Q9. How many megaspores are functional in a majority of flowering plants?
Correct Answer: (a)
In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three degenerate (Page 10).
Q10. In double fertilisation, the fusion of two polar nuclei and a male gamete produces:
Correct Answer: (c)
The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei... and fuses with them to produce a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (Page 18).
Q11. The only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen to the stigma is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Xenogamy is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma (Page 12).
Q12. Match the Following:
A. 7-celled
Embryo sac maturity
B. 8-nucleate
Embryo sac maturity
Correct Answer: (a)
The final state of the female gametophyte.
Q14. Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
Reason: These flowers do not open at all, and anthers and stigma lie close to each other.
Correct Answer: (a)
Their closed nature guarantees self-pollination (Page 12).
Q15. Regarding 'Dicot Embryo', which are correct? (i) Consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons. (ii) Epicotyl terminates with plumule. (iii) Hypocotyl terminates with radicle or root tip.
Correct Answer: (a)
Dicot anatomy from Page 19.
Q16. Which are correct for 'Artificial Hybridisation'? (i) Emasculation is removal of anthers. (ii) Bagging prevents contamination of stigma. (iii) Used for crop improvement.
Correct Answer: (a)
Techniques for controlled breeding from Page 17.
Q17. The number of ovules in an ovary may be one in which of the following?
Correct Answer: (d)
The number of ovules in an ovary may be one (wheat, paddy, mango) to many (papaya, water melon, orchids) (Page 9).
Q18. Match the layers of the anther wall from outside to inside:
Layer Name
Position
A. Epidermis
(I) Second layer
B. Endothecium
(II) Innermost layer
C. Tapetum
(III) Outermost layer
Correct Answer: (a)
Sequential order of anther wall (Page 5).
Q19. Match the Following:
Term
Meaning
A. Parturition
(I) Delivery of the baby
B. Gestation
(II) Embryonic development
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard human development terms from the PDF intro.
Q20. Which of the following are 'Outbreeding Devices'? (i) Synchronization of pollen release and stigma receptivity. (ii) Arrangement of anther and stigma at different positions. (iii) Self-incompatibility. (iv) Production of unisexual flowers.
Q21. The part of the pistil that serves as a landing platform for pollen grains is:
Correct Answer: (c)
The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains (Page 8).
Q22. Assertion: Syncarpous gynoecium has fused pistils.
Reason: In Michelia, the carpels are free.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true facts (Page 8), but the example of free carpels in Michelia (apocarpous) doesn't explain the definition of syncarpous.
Q23. Assertion: Artificial hybridisation is a major approach for crop improvement.
Reason: It ensures that only desired pollen grains are used for pollination.
Q24. Assertion: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Reason: It results in the formation of seeds without fertilisation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Apomixis produces seeds (a sexual product) via asexual means (Page 22).
Q25. Regarding 'Double Fertilisation', which statements are correct? (i) One male gamete fuses with the egg cell (Syngamy). (ii) The other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei (Triple fusion). (iii) It is unique to flowering plants.
Correct Answer: (a)
Definition and uniqueness from Section 1.3 (Page 18).
Q27. Assertion: The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.
Reason: It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true descriptions, but the shape doesn't explain why it 'floats' in the other cell's cytoplasm (Page 7).
Q28. Assertion: Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed.
Reason: This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.
Q29. Assertion: Monosporic development involves embryo sac formation from one megaspore.
Reason: Three megaspores in a tetrad degenerate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Degeneration of three leaves one to develop (Page 10).
Q30. Which of the following is an example of a water-pollinated plant?
Correct Answer: (c)
Some examples of water pollinated plants are Vallisneria and Hydrilla (Page 13).
Q31. Continued self-pollination result in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Continued self-pollination result in inbreeding depression (Page 15).
Q32. Megasporogenesis is the formation of megaspores from the:
Correct Answer: (b)
The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called megasporogenesis (Page 9).
Q33. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called microsporogenesis (Page 6).
Q34. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Geitonogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant (Page 12).
Q35. Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
Reason: It provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
Correct Answer: (a)
The nutritional tissue must be ready before the embryo grows (Page 18).
Q36. Match the structures in Column-I with their functions in Column-II:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Tapetum
(I) Landing platform for pollen
B. Stigma
(II) Provides nutrition to pollen
C. Filiform apparatus
(III) Protects the embryo
D. Seed coat
(IV) Guides pollen tube entry
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard structural functions from the chapter.
Q37. Which of the following are 'False Fruits'? (i) Apple (ii) Strawberry (iii) Cashew (iv) Mango
Correct Answer: (a)
Mango is a true fruit; others listed use the thalamus (Page 20).
Q38. Select correct statements for 'Polyembryony': (i) Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed. (ii) Common in Citrus and Mango. (iii) Nucellar cells can form these embryos.
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions and examples from Page 23.
Q39. The specialized cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip of synergids are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus (Page 11).
Q40. Which of the following is correct? (i) Flowers are objects of aesthetic and religious value. (ii) Humans have an intimate relationship with flowers. (iii) They are the site of sexual reproduction.
Correct Answer: (a)
Introductory cultural and biological significance of flowers (Page 4).
Q41. Match the Following:
Part
Develops into
A. Ovary
(I) Seed
B. Ovule
(II) Fruit
C. Zygote
(III) Embryo
Correct Answer: (a)
Post-fertilisation changes.
Q42. Assertion: Seeds are the basis of our agriculture.
Reason: Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seeds.
Correct Answer: (a)
Storage capability allows seeds to be used for next season's crops (Page 22).
Q43. Assertion: The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm.
Reason: It is made up of thousands of nuclei.
Correct Answer: (a)
Free-nuclear refers to the liquid state with many nuclei (Page 19).
Q44. Match the Following:
Example
Fruit Type
A. Mango
(I) False Fruit
B. Apple
(II) True Fruit
C. Banana
(III) Parthenocarpic
Correct Answer: (a)
Classification of fruits.
Q45. Which are correct for 'Synergids'? (i) Part of egg apparatus. (ii) Possess filiform apparatus. (iii) Guide the pollen tube.
Correct Answer: (a)
Roles described in the embryo sac section.
Q46. The hard outer layer of the pollen grain wall called exine is made up of:
Correct Answer: (c)
The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin, one of the most resistant organic materials known (Page 7).
Q47. Assertion: Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is polyembryony.
Reason: In Citrus, nucellar cells start dividing and protrude into the embryo sac.
Correct Answer: (a)
Nucellar embryos lead to multiple embryos in one seed (Page 23).
Q48. Assertion: The nucellus is the female gametophyte.
Reason: It is located within the integuments.
Correct Answer: (a)
Assertion is false; the embryo sac is the female gametophyte, while nucellus is the diploid tissue nourishing it (Page 9).
Q49. Identify correct features of the 'Embryo Sac': (i) Micropylar end has egg apparatus. (ii) Chalazal end has three antipodals. (iii) Central cell has two polar nuclei.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cellular organization from Page 11.
Q50. Regarding 'Monocot Embryo', which are correct? (i) Possess only one cotyledon called scutellum. (ii) Radicle and root cap enclosed in coleorhiza. (iii) Plumule enclosed in coleoptile.
Correct Answer: (c)
Syngamy results in the formation of a diploid cell, the zygote (Page 18).
Q53. Match theFollowing:
A. Hilum
Junction between ovule and funicle
B. Micropyle
Pore for entry of oxygen/water
C. Chalaza
Basal part of ovule
Correct Answer: (a)
Ovule anatomy (Page 9 and 20).
Q54. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Albuminous' seeds? (i) They retain a part of endosperm. (ii) Examples: Wheat, maize, barley, castor. (iii) It is not completely used during embryo development.
Correct Answer: (a)
Albuminous seed properties from Page 20.
Q55. Which features characterize 'Wind-Pollinated' flowers? (i) Light and non-sticky pollen grains. (ii) Well-exposed stamens. (iii) Large often-feathery stigma. (iv) Single ovule in each ovary.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard wind-pollination traits from Page 13.
Q56. The process of removal of anthers from the flower bud before it dehisces is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces... is referred to as emasculation (Page 17).
Q57. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Pollen Grains'? (i) They are generally spherical measuring 25-50 micrometers. (ii) Exine has germ pores. (iii) Intine is a thin and continuous layer made of cellulose and pectin.
Correct Answer: (b)
Based on the detailed structure in Section 1.2.1 (Page 7).
Q58. Apertures on the pollen exine where sporopollenin is absent are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent (Page 7).
Q59. Which of the following describes the 'Tapetum' correctly? (i) It is the innermost wall layer of microsporangium. (ii) It nourishes the developing pollen grains. (iii) Cells possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Correct Answer: (b)
Full description provided on Page 5.
Q60. Identify the correct statements for 'Apomixis': (i) Seeds are produced without fertilisation. (ii) It is a form of asexual reproduction. (iii) It occurs in some species of Asteraceae and grasses.
Correct Answer: (a)
Definition and examples from section 1.5 (Page 22).
Q61. Assertion: Pollen grains can be well-preserved as fossils.
Reason: The exine layer contains sporopollenin, which is highly resistant to high temperatures and strong acids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sporopollenin's resistance allows pollen to persist in fossils (Page 7).
Q62. Which are correct for 'Pollen supplements'? (i) Available as tablets and syrups. (ii) Claimed to increase performance of athletes. (iii) rich in nutrients.
Correct Answer: (a)
Commercial use of pollen from Page 8.
Q63. Assertion: In many species, pollen grains cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions.
Reason: Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true, but the entry of Parthenium into India is a historical fact that doesn't 'explain' the biological mechanism of why pollen causes allergies (Page 7).
Q64. Assertion: Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary.
Reason: Numerous flowers are packed into an inflorescence to increase pollination chances.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are adaptations for wind pollination (Page 13).
Q65. Assertion: Exine has germ pores.
Reason: Germ pores are regions where sporopollenin is thickest.
Correct Answer: (a)
Reason is false; germ pores are where sporopollenin is absent (Page 7).
Q66. The tallest flower mentioned in the text (about 6 feet in height) is:
Correct Answer: (b)
An example is that of the tallest flower of Amorphophallus (the flower itself is about 6 feet in height) (Page 14).
Q67. The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called:
Correct Answer: (c)
The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region called hilum (Page 9).
Q68. Pollination achieved within the same flower is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Autogamy: In this type, pollination is achieved within the same flower (Page 11).
Q69. In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at which stage?
Correct Answer: (b)
In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage (vegetative and generative cell) (Page 7).
Q70. Assertion: Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination but genetically autogamy.
Reason: The pollen grains come from a different plant of the same species.
Correct Answer: (a)
Reason is false because in geitonogamy, pollen comes from a different flower on the same plant (Page 12).
Q71. Match the embryo parts with their descriptions:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Epicotyl
(I) Cylindrical portion below cotyledons
B. Hypocotyl
(II) Shield shaped cotyledon in grass
C. Scutellum
(III) Embryonal axis above cotyledons
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomy of the embryo (Page 19).
Q72. Assertion: Synergids have a filiform apparatus.
Reason: It guides the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid.
Correct Answer: (a)
This is a key functional role of the filiform apparatus (Page 16).
Q73. Match the Following:
Hormone
Effect/Process
A. hCG, hPL, Relaxin
(I) Produced only during pregnancy (Human context)
B. LH surge
(II) Induces rupture of follicle
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on the Human Reproduction context in the first few pages of the PDF.
Q74. Wind pollination is quite common in:
Correct Answer: (a)
Wind-pollination is quite common in grasses (Page 13).
Q75. Which statements about 'Pollen-Pistil Interaction' are true? (i) It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition. (ii) Rejection of wrong type of pollen occurs. (iii) It is mediated by chemical components.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 1.2.3 (Page 15-16) describes this 'dialogue'.
Q76. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is ______ and ______.
Correct Answer: (c)
A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled (Page 11).
Q77. Regarding 'Seeds', which statements are true? (i) They are the final product of sexual reproduction. (ii) Dehydration and dormancy are crucial for storage. (iii) They provide new genetic combinations leading to variations.
Correct Answer: (a)
Benefits of seeds from Section 1.4.3 (Page 22).
Q78. Match the Following:
Structure
Plant
A. Multicarpellary apocarpous
(I) Michelia
B. Multicarpellary syncarpous
(II) Papaver
Correct Answer: (a)
Examples from Figure 1.7.
Q79. Match the plant examples in Column-I with their pollination agents in Column-II:
Column-I (Plant)
Column-II (Agent)
A. Grasses
(I) Water
B. Vallisneria
(II) Insects
C. Amorphophallus
(III) Wind
Correct Answer: (a)
Examples cited in the pollination section.
Q80. Identify true statements for 'Cleistogamous' flowers: (i) They are invariably autogamous. (ii) No chance of cross-pollination. (iii) Assured seed set without pollinators.
Correct Answer: (a)
Features of closed flowers from Page 12.
Q81. Assertion: Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase performance of athletes.
Reason: Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.
Correct Answer: (a)
Nutrient richness is the basis for its use as a supplement (Page 8).
Q82. The innermost wall layer of a microsporangium that nourishes the developing pollen grains is:
Correct Answer: (d)
The innermost wall layer is the tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen grains (Page 5).
Q83. Identify correct statements for 'Insect-Pollinated' flowers: (i) Large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar. (ii) Pollen grains are generally sticky. (iii) Flowers produce nectar and pollen as rewards.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard biotic pollination traits from Page 14.
Q84. Match the outbreeding device with its mechanism:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Self-incompatibility
(I) Anther and stigma at different positions
B. Dichogamy (Not named, but described)
(II) Pollen release and stigma receptivity not synchronized
C. Genetic mechanism
(III) Prevents self-pollen from fertilising ovules
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on section 1.2.3 (Outbreeding Devices).
Q85. Match the Following:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Syncarpous
(I) Carpels are free
B. Apocarpous
(II) Pistils are fused
C. Monocarpellary
(III) Single pistil
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions of gynoecium types (Page 8).
Q86. Pollen grains represent the:
Correct Answer: (b)
The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes (Page 6).
Q87. A typical angiosperm anther is ______ and ______.
Correct Answer: (b)
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca, i.e., they are dithecous (Page 5).
Q88. Match the Following:
A. Coleoptile
Plumule protector
B. Coleorhiza
Radicle protector
Correct Answer: (a)
Protective sheaths in monocot embryos.
Q89. Match the following regarding monocot seeds:
A. Coleoptile
Sheath of plumule
B. Coleorhiza
Sheath of radicle
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomy of monocot embryo (Page 19).
Q90. Match the following for embryo sac:
Cell type
Location
A. Synergids
(I) Chalazal end
B. Antipodals
(II) Micropylar end
C. Polar nuclei
(III) Central cell
Correct Answer: (a)
Distribution of cells in embryo sac (Page 11).
Q91. Flowers that do not open at all are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all (Page 12).
Q92. Assertion: In a 7-celled embryo sac, the central cell is the largest.
Reason: It contains two polar nuclei.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true facts (Page 11), but size doesn't necessarily result from the number of nuclei.
Q93. Assertion: The tapetal cells often become bi-nucleate.
Reason: They possess dense cytoplasm and undergo endomitosis/nuclear division without cytokinesis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Tapetal cells provide nourishment and often have more than one nucleus (Page 5).
Q94. Match the ploidy:
Cell
Ploidy
A. MMC
(I) 2n
B. Megaspore
(II) n
C. PEN
(III) 3n
Correct Answer: (a)
MMC is diploid; products of meiosis are haploid; triple fusion is triploid.
Q95. Regarding 'Sporopollenin', identify the correct statements: (i) It is found in the exine of pollen grains. (ii) No enzyme that degrades it is so far known. (iii) It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Properties of sporopollenin as per Page 7.
Q96. Match theFollowing:
A. Viola
Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers
B. Oxalis
Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers
C. Commelina
Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 12 lists these three examples.
Q97. Assertion: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless.
Reason: They develop without fertilisation.
Correct Answer: (a)
The lack of fertilization prevents seed formation (Page 21).
Q98. Match the Following:
A. Testa
Outer seed coat
B. Tegmen
Inner seed coat
Correct Answer: (a)
Seed coat layers (Page 20).
Q99. Identify the correct statements about 'Endosperm': (i) Its development precedes embryo development. (ii) It is formed from the primary endosperm cell (PEC). (iii) It may be completely consumed by the developing embryo.
Correct Answer: (a)
Endosperm role and fate from section 1.4.1.
Q100. Match the terms in Column-I with their definitions in Column-II:
Column-I (Term)
Column-II (Definition)
A. Syngamy
(I) Fusion of two polar nuclei and one male gamete
B. Triple fusion
(II) Development of fruit without fertilisation
C. Parthenocarpy
(III) Fusion of one male gamete with egg cell
D. Apomixis
(IV) Production of seeds without fertilisation
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard botanical definitions from the text.
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