Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants (NCERT Practice Paper)

Q1. Match the ploidy:

Cell	Ploidy
A. MMC	(I) 2n
B. Megaspore	(II) n
C. PEN	(III) 3n

Correct Answer: (a)
The megaspore mother cell (MMC) is diploid (2n, I). Megaspores are haploid (n, II) products of meiosis. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is triploid (3n, III) after triple fusion. These ploidy levels are fundamental.

Q2. Match theFollowing:

A. Viola	Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers
B. Oxalis	Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers
C. Commelina	Chasmogamous and Cleistogamous flowers

Correct Answer: (a)
Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina are all examples of plants that produce both chasmogamous (open) and cleistogamous (closed) flowers. This strategy ensures seed set under varying environmental conditions.

Q3. Which of the following is correct?
(i) Flowers are objects of aesthetic and religious value.
(ii) Humans have an intimate relationship with flowers.
(iii) They are the site of sexual reproduction.

Correct Answer: (a)
Flowers hold cultural, aesthetic, and religious significance, and humans have a long history with them. Botanically, they are the reproductive structures of angiosperms. All three statements are true.

Q4. Assertion: The nucellus is the female gametophyte. Reason: It is located within the integuments.

Correct Answer: (d)
The assertion is false because the nucellus is the diploid nutritive tissue, not the female gametophyte. The female gametophyte is the embryo sac, which develops from the functional megaspore. The reason is true because the nucellus is indeed enclosed by integuments.

Q5. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is ______ and ______.

Correct Answer: (c)
The mature embryo sac is 8-nucleate but 7-celled because the two polar nuclei fuse into a single central cell nucleus, while the other nuclei are organized into distinct cells. This structure includes the egg apparatus (synergids and egg cell), antipodal cells, and the central cell with two polar nuclei.

Q6. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Albuminous' seeds?
(i) They retain a part of endosperm.
(ii) Examples: Wheat, maize, barley, castor.
(iii) It is not completely used during embryo development.

Correct Answer: (a)
Albuminous seeds retain some endosperm after maturation, as in wheat, maize, barley, and castor. The endosperm is not entirely consumed by the embryo, providing a food reserve for germination.

Q7. Assertion: Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase performance of athletes. Reason: Pollen grains are rich in nutrients.

Correct Answer: (a)
Pollen grains contain proteins, vitamins, minerals, and carbohydrates, making them a nutritious supplement. The nutrient content is the basis for claims that they enhance athletic performance, though scientific evidence is mixed. Both statements are true and causally linked.

Q8. The body of the ovule fuses with the funicle in the region called:

Correct Answer: (c)
The hilum is the junction point where the ovule body attaches to the funicle (stalk). It is the point of vascular connection between the ovule and the placenta. The micropyle is the opening for pollen tube entry, and the chalaza is the basal region opposite the micropyle.

Q9. Match the Following:

Term	Meaning
A. Parturition	(I) Delivery of the baby
B. Gestation	(II) Embryonic development

Correct Answer: (a)
Parturition is the process of giving birth (I). Gestation is the period of embryonic development within the uterus (II). These terms are used in mammalian reproduction.

Q10. The product of syngamy is the ______.

Correct Answer: (c)
Syngamy is the fusion of a male gamete with the egg cell, resulting in a diploid zygote. The zygote develops into the embryo, while the other products of double fertilisation give rise to the endosperm and seed.

Q11. The process of removal of anthers from the flower bud before it dehisces is:

Correct Answer: (b)
Emasculation is the removal of anthers from a flower bud before they release pollen. It is performed during artificial hybridization to prevent self-pollination. After emasculation, the flower is bagged to avoid contamination from unwanted pollen.

Q12. Match the Following:

Structure	Plant
A. Multicarpellary apocarpous	(I) Michelia
B. Multicarpellary syncarpous	(II) Papaver

Correct Answer: (a)
Michelia has multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium (free carpels). Papaver has multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium (fused carpels). These examples illustrate the diversity of floral structures.

Q13. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell (PMC) through meiosis is called:

Correct Answer: (b)
Microsporogenesis is the meiotic division of pollen mother cells (PMCs) that produces haploid microspores. These microspores later develop into pollen grains, which represent the male gametophyte. This process is essential for the production of male gametes in angiosperms.

Q14. Pollination achieved within the same flower is called:

Correct Answer: (c)
Autogamy is the transfer of pollen from the anther to the stigma of the same flower. It is a form of self-pollination that ensures reproductive success even in the absence of pollinators. Cleistogamy is a type of autogamy where flowers remain closed.

Q15. Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators. Reason: These flowers do not open at all, and anthers and stigma lie close to each other.

Correct Answer: (a)
Cleistogamous flowers are self-pollinating by default because they remain closed, and the anthers and stigma are in close proximity. This ensures that pollen from the same flower reaches the stigma without the need for external pollinators, leading to assured seed production.

Q16. Match the Following:

Part	Develops into
A. Ovary	(I) Seed
B. Ovule	(II) Fruit
C. Zygote	(III) Embryo

Correct Answer: (a)
After fertilization, the ovary develops into the fruit (II), the ovule matures into the seed (I), and the zygote gives rise to the embryo (III). These are the post-fertilization changes.

Q17. Match the following regarding monocot seeds:

A. Coleoptile	Sheath of plumule
B. Coleorhiza	Sheath of radicle

Correct Answer: (a)
In monocot embryos, the coleoptile protects the plumule (shoot), and the coleorhiza protects the radicle (root). These sheaths are characteristic of grasses and cereals.

Q18. Regarding 'Dicot Embryo', which are correct?
(i) Consists of an embryonal axis and two cotyledons.
(ii) Epicotyl terminates with plumule.
(iii) Hypocotyl terminates with radicle or root tip.

Correct Answer: (a)
The dicot embryo has an axis with two cotyledons. The epicotyl ends in the plumule (shoot tip), and the hypocotyl ends in the radicle (root tip). These structures are characteristic of dicot seeds.

Q19. Match the following regarding water pollination:

Structure	Function
A. Long stalk	(I) Reaches water surface in Vallisneria
B. Mucilaginous covering	(II) Protects pollen from wetting

Correct Answer: (a)
In Vallisneria, the long stalk helps the female flower reach the water surface (I). The mucilaginous covering on pollen grains protects them from wetting (II). These are adaptations for hydrophily.

Q20. The number of ovules in an ovary may be one in which of the following?

Correct Answer: (d)
Wheat, paddy, and mango all typically possess a single ovule per ovary. This is a common feature in many monocots and some dicots. The number of ovules per ovary varies widely among species, from one to many.

Q21. Match the outbreeding device with its mechanism:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Self-incompatibility	(I) Anther and stigma at different positions
B. Dichogamy (Not named, but described)	(II) Pollen release and stigma receptivity not synchronized
C. Genetic mechanism	(III) Prevents self-pollen from fertilising ovules

Correct Answer: (a)
Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism that prevents self-fertilization (III). Dichogamy is the temporal separation of pollen release and stigma receptivity (II). The term 'Genetic mechanism' here is interpreted as a specific type of self-incompatibility, so it also matches III, but typically it is a broader category. The given matching is as per the question context.

Q22. Assertion: Exine has germ pores. Reason: Germ pores are regions where sporopollenin is thickest.

Correct Answer: (c)
The assertion is correct: the pollen exine contains germ pores. However, the reason is false because germ pores are actually regions where sporopollenin is absent, allowing the pollen tube to emerge. The presence of germ pores is essential for pollen germination.

Q23. How many megaspores are functional in a majority of flowering plants?

Correct Answer: (a)
In most angiosperms, only one of the four megaspores remains functional; the other three degenerate. This functional megaspore gives rise to the embryo sac (female gametophyte) through mitotic divisions. This pattern is known as monosporic development.

Q24. Which of the following are 'Outbreeding Devices'?
(i) Synchronization of pollen release and stigma receptivity.
(ii) Arrangement of anther and stigma at different positions.
(iii) Self-incompatibility.
(iv) Production of unisexual flowers.

Correct Answer: (a)
Outbreeding devices promote cross-pollination: different positions of anthers and stigma (ii), self-incompatibility (iii), and unisexual flowers (iv). Synchronization (i) actually favors self-pollination, so it is not an outbreeding device.

Q25. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is:

Correct Answer: (b)
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen between different flowers of the same individual plant. While it involves two flowers, the genetic makeup is identical, so it is functionally cross-pollination but genetically similar to autogamy. This occurs in plants with multiple flowers.

Q26. Identify true statements for 'Cleistogamous' flowers:
(i) They are invariably autogamous.
(ii) No chance of cross-pollination.
(iii) Assured seed set without pollinators.

Correct Answer: (a)
Cleistogamous flowers are always self-pollinating (autogamous) because they remain closed, preventing cross-pollination. This ensures seed production even without pollinators, making all statements correct.

Q27. Apertures on the pollen exine where sporopollenin is absent are called:

Correct Answer: (b)
Germ pores are the regions on the pollen grain exine where sporopollenin is absent. These apertures allow the pollen tube to emerge during germination. The number and position of germ pores are characteristic features used in taxonomy.

Q28. Which of the following is an example of a water-pollinated plant?

Correct Answer: (c)
Vallisneria is a submerged aquatic plant that exhibits water pollination (hydrophily). Its female flowers reach the water surface, and male flowers release pollen that drifts to them. Water hyacinth and water lily are typically insect-pollinated, and Amorphophallus is insect-pollinated.

Q29. Assertion: Artificial hybridisation is a major approach for crop improvement. Reason: It ensures that only desired pollen grains are used for pollination.

Correct Answer: (a)
Artificial hybridization involves controlled pollination using selected pollen parents to combine desirable traits. By emasculating and bagging, only the desired pollen is applied, ensuring specific genetic crosses. This technique is central to plant breeding and crop improvement.

Q30. Identify the correct statements for 'Apomixis':
(i) Seeds are produced without fertilisation.
(ii) It is a form of asexual reproduction.
(iii) It occurs in some species of Asteraceae and grasses.

Correct Answer: (a)
Apomixis produces seeds without fertilization, making it asexual. It is found in certain plants like Asteraceae and grasses. This process can fix hybrid traits and is of agricultural interest.

Q31. Assertion: The tapetal cells often become bi-nucleate. Reason: They possess dense cytoplasm and undergo endomitosis/nuclear division without cytokinesis.

Correct Answer: (a)
Tapetal cells are highly active and often become multinucleate due to endomitosis or nuclear division without cytokinesis. This provides more genetic material to support the high metabolic demands of nourishing developing pollen grains. The dense cytoplasm and increased nuclear content are directly responsible for their nutritive function.

Q32. Match theFollowing:

A. Hilum	Junction between ovule and funicle
B. Micropyle	Pore for entry of oxygen/water
C. Chalaza	Basal part of ovule

Correct Answer: (a)
All three statements are correct: the hilum is the junction point, the micropyle is the opening for pollen tube entry and later for water/oxygen in seeds, and the chalaza is the basal region. These are standard ovule structures.

Q33. Match the plant examples in Column-I with their pollination agents in Column-II:

Column-I (Plant)	Column-II (Agent)
A. Grasses	(I) Water
B. Vallisneria	(II) Insects
C. Amorphophallus	(III) Wind

Correct Answer: (a)
Grasses are wind-pollinated (III). Vallisneria is water-pollinated (I). Amorphophallus is insect-pollinated (II), attracting flies with its odour. These associations are well-documented.

Q34. Assertion: Emasculation is not required if the female parent produces unisexual flowers. Reason: Unisexual flowers do not have anthers to remove.

Correct Answer: (a)
Emasculation is the removal of anthers to prevent self-pollination. If the female parent produces unisexual (female) flowers, there are no anthers present, so emasculation is unnecessary. The absence of anthers is the direct reason for skipping this step in artificial hybridization.

Q35. Assertion: Synergids have a filiform apparatus. Reason: It guides the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid.

Correct Answer: (a)
The filiform apparatus is a specialized structure in synergids that helps direct the pollen tube towards the synergid. It also plays a role in attracting the pollen tube and facilitating the release of sperm cells. Its function is directly related to the guidance process.

Q36. Match the following for embryo sac:

Cell type	Location
A. Synergids	(I) Chalazal end
B. Antipodals	(II) Micropylar end
C. Polar nuclei	(III) Central cell

Correct Answer: (a)
Synergids are at the micropylar end (II), antipodals are at the chalazal end (I), and polar nuclei are in the central cell (III). This is the standard arrangement in the embryo sac.

Q37. Assertion: Apple and strawberry are called false fruits. Reason: In these fruits, the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation.

Correct Answer: (a)
False fruits develop from parts other than the ovary, such as the thalamus (receptacle). In apple and strawberry, the thalamus becomes fleshy and edible, while the actual ovary forms the core or the achenes. This extra-ovarian tissue is the reason they are classified as false fruits.

Q38. Assertion: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless. Reason: They develop without fertilisation.

Correct Answer: (a)
Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization, which naturally leads to seedlessness because seeds are the product of fertilized ovules. The lack of fertilization prevents ovule maturation into seeds, resulting in seedless fruits like banana and cucumber.

Q39. Which are correct for 'Synergids'?
(i) Part of egg apparatus.
(ii) Possess filiform apparatus.
(iii) Guide the pollen tube.

Correct Answer: (a)
Synergids are part of the egg apparatus, have a filiform apparatus, and play a role in attracting and guiding the pollen tube. They are essential for successful fertilization.

Q40. Assertion: Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary. Reason: Numerous flowers are packed into an inflorescence to increase pollination chances.

Correct Answer: (b)
Wind-pollinated plants typically have many flowers in an inflorescence to compensate for the randomness of wind dispersal. However, the presence of a single ovule per ovary is a separate adaptation to reduce resource investment per seed, not a direct consequence of having many flowers. Both are true but independent strategies.

Q41. Flowers that do not open at all are called:

Correct Answer: (b)
Cleistogamous flowers are those that never open, ensuring self-pollination. They produce assured seed set without the need for external agents. Examples include Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina.

Q42. Assertion: Syncarpous gynoecium has fused pistils. Reason: In Michelia, the carpels are free.

Correct Answer: (b)
Both statements are correct: syncarpous means fused carpels, and Michelia has free carpels (apocarpous). However, the reason does not explain the assertion; it simply states an example of the opposite condition. They are related but not causally linked.

Q43. In double fertilisation, the fusion of two polar nuclei and a male gamete produces:

Correct Answer: (c)
The fusion of one male gamete with the two polar nuclei results in a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). This PEN undergoes mitosis to form the endosperm, which provides nutrition to the developing embryo. Syngamy produces the zygote.

Q44. Match the Following:

Example	Fruit Type
A. Mango	(I) False Fruit
B. Apple	(II) True Fruit
C. Banana	(III) Parthenocarpic

Correct Answer: (a)
Mango develops from the ovary alone, so it is a true fruit (II). Apple is a false fruit because the thalamus contributes (I). Banana is parthenocarpic, developing without fertilization (III).

Q45. The only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen to the stigma is:

Correct Answer: (c)
Xenogamy involves pollen transfer between flowers of different plants, introducing genetic variation. This is the only pollination type that brings genetically distinct pollen to the stigma, promoting outbreeding. It is essential for maintaining genetic diversity in populations.

Q46. Pollen grains represent the:

Correct Answer: (b)
Pollen grains are the male gametophytes in flowering plants. They contain the generative and vegetative cells, which give rise to the male gametes (sperm cells). The female gametophyte is the embryo sac, which develops from the functional megaspore.

Q47. Which of the following describes the 'Tapetum' correctly?
(i) It is the innermost wall layer of microsporangium.
(ii) It nourishes the developing pollen grains.
(iii) Cells possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

Correct Answer: (b)
All three statements are correct: the tapetum is the innermost layer, it nourishes pollen, and its cells are often multinucleate. This layer is crucial for pollen development and viability.

Q48. The innermost wall layer of a microsporangium that nourishes the developing pollen grains is:

Correct Answer: (d)
The tapetum is the innermost layer of the microsporangium wall. It has dense cytoplasm and often multiple nuclei, providing essential nutrients to the developing microspores. Its secretory activity supports pollen maturation and pollen wall formation.

Q49. A typical angiosperm anther is ______ and ______.

Correct Answer: (b)
A typical angiosperm anther consists of two lobes (bilobed) and each lobe contains two thecae (pollen sacs), making it dithecous. This structure maximizes the production of pollen grains. The bilobed, dithecous condition is a key feature of the majority of flowering plants.

Q50. Assertion: Endosperm development precedes embryo development. Reason: It provides nutrition to the developing embryo.

Correct Answer: (a)
The endosperm is formed first to ensure a nutrient supply for the embryo. The embryo requires nourishment during its early development, and the endosperm serves as a food reserve. Thus, the sequence ensures embryo survival.

Q51. Assertion: Pollen grains can be well-preserved as fossils. Reason: The exine layer contains sporopollenin, which is highly resistant to high temperatures and strong acids.

Correct Answer: (a)
Sporopollenin is one of the most resistant organic materials known, allowing pollen grains to withstand extreme conditions. This resistance enables fossilization of pollen grains, which are valuable for paleobotanical studies. The exine's chemical stability is the direct reason for the preservation of pollen in sediments.

Q52. The hard outer layer of the pollen grain wall called exine is made up of:

Correct Answer: (c)
The exine is composed of sporopollenin, a highly resistant organic polymer. It protects the pollen grain from environmental stresses and is resistant to degradation by enzymes and strong acids. This property also allows pollen grains to be preserved as fossils.

Q53. The tallest flower mentioned in the text (about 6 feet in height) is:

Correct Answer: (b)
Amorphophallus produces a tall inflorescence (spadix) that can reach up to 6 feet. This plant is also known for its foul odour, attracting carrion flies for pollination. The other options do not reach such heights.

Q54. Assertion: The coconut water from tender coconut is free-nuclear endosperm. Reason: It is made up of thousands of nuclei.

Correct Answer: (a)
Coconut water is the liquid endosperm in its early, free-nuclear stage, containing many nuclei without cell walls. As the coconut matures, the endosperm becomes cellular (coconut meat). The presence of numerous nuclei is the defining feature of this free-nuclear phase.

Q55. Match the Following:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Syncarpous	(I) Carpels are free
B. Apocarpous	(II) Pistils are fused
C. Monocarpellary	(III) Single pistil

Correct Answer: (a)
Syncarpous gynoecium has fused carpels (II). Apocarpous has free carpels (I). Monocarpellary has a single pistil (III). These terms describe the fusion state of carpels.

Q56. Assertion: Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is polyembryony. Reason: In Citrus, nucellar cells start dividing and protrude into the embryo sac.

Correct Answer: (a)
Polyembryony is the presence of multiple embryos in a single seed, commonly observed in Citrus. The additional embryos arise from nucellar cells (sporophytic tissue) that undergo embryogenesis, yielding genetically identical embryos to the mother plant. This is a clear case of nucellar polyembryony.

Q57. Continued self-pollination result in:

Correct Answer: (b)
Repeated self-pollination leads to inbreeding depression, characterized by reduced vigour and fitness due to the expression of recessive deleterious alleles. This is a major reason why many plants have evolved mechanisms to promote cross-pollination.

Q58. Which statements about 'Pollen-Pistil Interaction' are true?
(i) It is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition.
(ii) Rejection of wrong type of pollen occurs.
(iii) It is mediated by chemical components.

Correct Answer: (a)
Pollen-pistil interaction is a complex molecular dialogue involving recognition, acceptance or rejection of pollen, and is mediated by chemical signals. This ensures only compatible pollen fertilizes the ovule.

Q59. Assertion: Monosporic development involves embryo sac formation from one megaspore. Reason: Three megaspores in a tetrad degenerate.

Correct Answer: (a)
In monosporic development, only one megaspore is functional while the other three degenerate. The functional megaspore then undergoes mitotic divisions to form the embryo sac. This is the typical pattern in most flowering plants and is correctly explained by the degeneration of the other megaspores.

Q60. Identify correct statements for 'Insect-Pollinated' flowers:
(i) Large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
(ii) Pollen grains are generally sticky.
(iii) Flowers produce nectar and pollen as rewards.

Correct Answer: (a)
Insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant, and nectar-rich. Their pollen is often sticky to adhere to insects. They offer nectar and pollen as rewards, which attract pollinators and ensure pollen transfer.

Q61. Regarding 'Monocot Embryo', which are correct?
(i) Possess only one cotyledon called scutellum.
(ii) Radicle and root cap enclosed in coleorhiza.
(iii) Plumule enclosed in coleoptile.

Correct Answer: (a)
Monocot embryos have a single cotyledon (scutellum), the radicle is protected by coleorhiza, and the plumule is enclosed by coleoptile. These adaptations aid in germination in monocots.

Q62. Assertion: Seeds are the basis of our agriculture. Reason: Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seeds.

Correct Answer: (a)
Seeds are fundamental to agriculture because they can be stored for long periods and sown when conditions are favorable. The ability of seeds to undergo dehydration and dormancy allows farmers to preserve them across seasons and plant crops at desired times.

Q63. Match the embryo parts with their descriptions:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Epicotyl	(I) Cylindrical portion below cotyledons
B. Hypocotyl	(II) Shield shaped cotyledon in grass
C. Scutellum	(III) Embryonal axis above cotyledons

Correct Answer: (a)
The epicotyl is the region of the embryonal axis above the cotyledons (III). The hypocotyl is the portion below the cotyledons (I). The scutellum is the single cotyledon in grasses, shield-shaped (II).

Q64. Match the layers of the anther wall from outside to inside:

Layer Name	Position
A. Epidermis	(I) Second layer
B. Endothecium	(II) Innermost layer
C. Tapetum	(III) Outermost layer

Correct Answer: (a)
The anther wall layers from outside to inside are: epidermis (outermost, III), endothecium (second, I), middle layers, and tapetum (innermost, II). The tapetum is the innermost nutritive layer.

Q65. Regarding 'Megasporogenesis':
(i) Meiosis of MMC produces four megaspores.
(ii) One remains functional.
(iii) Functional megaspore develops into embryo sac.

Correct Answer: (a)
Megasporogenesis involves meiosis of the MMC to produce four megaspores; typically only one survives and becomes the functional megaspore, which develops into the embryo sac. All statements are correct.

Q66. Match the Following:

A. Testa	Outer seed coat
B. Tegmen	Inner seed coat

Correct Answer: (a)
The testa is the outer seed coat, and the tegmen is the inner seed coat. Both are derived from the integuments of the ovule after fertilization. They protect the embryo inside.

Q67. Assertion: Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination but genetically autogamy. Reason: The pollen grains come from a different plant of the same species.

Correct Answer: (c)
Geitonogamy involves pollen transfer between flowers on the same plant, which is cross-pollination functionally but genetically self-pollination. The reason given is incorrect because the pollen comes from another flower on the same plant, not from a different plant. Thus, the assertion is true but the reason is false.

Q68. Which are correct for 'Artificial Hybridisation'?
(i) Emasculation is removal of anthers.
(ii) Bagging prevents contamination of stigma.
(iii) Used for crop improvement.

Correct Answer: (a)
Artificial hybridization involves emasculation (removing anthers), bagging (to prevent unwanted pollen), and is a key tool in crop improvement. All steps are essential for controlled crosses.

Q69. Assertion: In many species, pollen grains cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions. Reason: Parthenium or carrot grass came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat.

Correct Answer: (b)
Both statements are factual, but the reason does not explain why pollen causes allergies. The allergenicity of pollen is due to specific proteins on the pollen surface that trigger immune responses. The introduction of Parthenium is a separate historical event, not the mechanism of allergy induction.

Q70. Which features characterize 'Wind-Pollinated' flowers?
(i) Light and non-sticky pollen grains.
(ii) Well-exposed stamens.
(iii) Large often-feathery stigma.
(iv) Single ovule in each ovary.

Correct Answer: (a)
Wind-pollinated flowers have light non-sticky pollen, exposed stamens, large feathery stigmas, and often a single ovule per ovary. These adaptations increase the chances of successful pollination by wind.

Q71. Assertion: Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction. Reason: It results in the formation of seeds without fertilisation.

Correct Answer: (a)
Apomixis produces seeds without fertilization, thus resembling sexual reproduction (seed formation) but being asexual in genetic outcome. The seed contains an embryo that is genetically identical to the mother plant. This allows for the fixation of hybrid vigour.

Q72. In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at which stage?

Correct Answer: (b)
In the majority of angiosperms, pollen grains are released at the 2-celled stage, consisting of a larger vegetative cell and a smaller generative cell. The generative cell later divides to form two sperm cells. In some species, pollen is shed at the 3-celled stage.

Q73. Match the Following:

Hormone	Effect/Process
A. hCG, hPL, Relaxin	(I) Produced only during pregnancy (Human context)
B. LH surge	(II) Induces rupture of follicle

Correct Answer: (a)
hCG, hPL, and relaxin are hormones secreted during pregnancy (I). The LH surge triggers ovulation by rupturing the mature follicle (II). These are key events in human reproduction.

Q74. Which are correct for 'Pollen supplements'?
(i) Available as tablets and syrups.
(ii) Claimed to increase performance of athletes.
(iii) rich in nutrients.

Correct Answer: (a)
Pollen supplements are sold in various forms and are promoted for athletic performance due to their nutrient richness. However, scientific evidence is limited, but the statements are factually correct.

Q75. Assertion: In a 7-celled embryo sac, the central cell is the largest. Reason: It contains two polar nuclei.

Correct Answer: (b)
Both statements are true: the central cell is indeed the largest, and it contains two polar nuclei. However, the presence of two nuclei does not directly explain the cell's size; the central cell is large due to its role in accumulating nutrients and forming the endosperm. The reason is a characteristic, not a causative explanation.

Q76. Match the Following:

A. Coleoptile	Plumule protector
B. Coleorhiza	Radicle protector

Correct Answer: (a)
Both statements are correct: the coleoptile is a sheath protecting the plumule, and the coleorhiza protects the radicle in monocot embryos. These structures aid in seedling emergence.

Q77. Match the pollen types:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Vegetative cell	(I) Spindle shaped, dense cytoplasm
B. Generative cell	(II) Bigger, abundant food reserve

Correct Answer: (a)
The vegetative cell is large and contains abundant food reserves (II). The generative cell is spindle-shaped with dense cytoplasm (I). These distinct cell types are formed during pollen development.

Q78. Match the Following:

A. 7-celled	Embryo sac maturity
B. 8-nucleate	Embryo sac maturity

Correct Answer: (a)
The mature embryo sac is both 7-celled (due to fusion of polar nuclei into one central cell) and 8-nucleate (since the two polar nuclei have not yet fused?). Actually it's 8-nucleate and 7-celled; both descriptions are correct for the mature embryo sac. The question considers both as correct.

Q79. Identify correct features of the 'Embryo Sac':
(i) Micropylar end has egg apparatus.
(ii) Chalazal end has three antipodals.
(iii) Central cell has two polar nuclei.

Correct Answer: (a)
The embryo sac has the egg apparatus at the micropylar end, antipodals at the chalazal end, and a central cell with two polar nuclei. This organization is universal in angiosperms.

Q80. Identify correct statements for 'Embryo development':
(i) Occurs at the micropylar end of the embryo sac.
(ii) Most zygotes divide only after some endosperm is formed.
(iii) Stages include proembryo, globular and heart-shaped embryo.

Correct Answer: (a)
Embryo development takes place at the micropylar end, with the zygote dividing after endosperm formation. The typical stages are proembryo, globular, heart-shaped, and torpedo. All statements are accurate.

Q81. The specialized cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip of synergids are called:

Correct Answer: (b)
The filiform apparatus consists of finger-like projections at the micropylar end of synergids. It helps in guiding the pollen tube into the synergid and facilitating the release of sperm cells. The synergids play a crucial role in pollen tube attraction and fertilization.

Q82. Which of the following are 'False Fruits'?
(i) Apple
(ii) Strawberry
(iii) Cashew
(iv) Mango

Correct Answer: (a)
Apple, strawberry, and cashew are false fruits because they develop from the thalamus or pedicel, not from the ovary alone. Mango is a true fruit derived solely from the ovary. Thus, (i), (ii), and (iii) are correct.

Q83. Identify true statements for 'True fruits':
(i) Develop only from the ovary.
(ii) Other floral parts degenerate and fall off.
(iii) Mango is an example.

Correct Answer: (a)
True fruits develop exclusively from the ovary, with other floral parts withering away. Mango is a classic example. These criteria distinguish true fruits from false fruits.

Q84. Regarding 'Sporopollenin', identify the correct statements:
(i) It is found in the exine of pollen grains.
(ii) No enzyme that degrades it is so far known.
(iii) It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids.

Correct Answer: (a)
Sporopollenin is present in the exine, is remarkably resistant to enzymatic and chemical degradation, and can tolerate extreme conditions. These properties make pollen grains durable and well-preserved in fossils.

Q85. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Pollen Grains'?
(i) They are generally spherical measuring 25-50 micrometers.
(ii) Exine has germ pores.
(iii) Intine is a thin and continuous layer made of cellulose and pectin.

Correct Answer: (b)
Pollen grains are typically spherical, around 25-50 µm; the exine contains germ pores; and the intine is a thin cellulose-pectin layer. All these features are characteristic of pollen grain structure.

Q86. The part of the pistil that serves as a landing platform for pollen grains is:

Correct Answer: (c)
The stigma is the receptive surface of the pistil that captures pollen grains. It often has a sticky or hairy surface to facilitate pollen adhesion. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth begin after the pollen grain lands on a compatible stigma.

Q87. Match the structures in Column-I with their functions in Column-II:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Tapetum	(I) Landing platform for pollen
B. Stigma	(II) Provides nutrition to pollen
C. Filiform apparatus	(III) Protects the embryo
D. Seed coat	(IV) Guides pollen tube entry

Correct Answer: (a)
The tapetum nourishes pollen (II); the stigma is the landing platform (I); the filiform apparatus guides pollen tube entry (IV); and the seed coat protects the embryo (III). These are the primary roles of these structures.

Q88. Identify the correct statements about 'Endosperm':
(i) Its development precedes embryo development.
(ii) It is formed from the primary endosperm cell (PEC).
(iii) It may be completely consumed by the developing embryo.

Correct Answer: (a)
Endosperm develops before the embryo to ensure a nutrient supply. It originates from the PEC after triple fusion. In some seeds, the embryo consumes the entire endosperm during maturation, leaving non-albuminous seeds.

Q89. Regarding 'Double Fertilisation', which statements are correct?
(i) One male gamete fuses with the egg cell (Syngamy).
(ii) The other male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei (Triple fusion).
(iii) It is unique to flowering plants.

Correct Answer: (a)
Double fertilization involves syngamy and triple fusion, and it is indeed unique to angiosperms. This process leads to the formation of both the zygote and the endosperm, a hallmark of flowering plants.

Q90. Match theFollowing:

Symbol	Meaning
A. PEN	(I) Triple fusion product
B. PEC	(II) Cell containing PEN

Correct Answer: (a)
PEN stands for Primary Endosperm Nucleus, which is the product of triple fusion (I). PEC is the Primary Endosperm Cell, which contains the PEN (II). These are key terms in double fertilization.

Q91. Assertion: Most zygotes divide only after a certain amount of endosperm is formed. Reason: This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.

Correct Answer: (a)
The delay in zygotic division allows the endosperm to accumulate nutrients first. This ensures that when the embryo begins to grow, a ready food supply is available, supporting its development. This is a crucial adaptation in angiosperms for successful seed formation.

Q92. Match the seed terms:

Column-I	Column-II
A. Albuminous	(I) Residual persistent nucellus
B. Perisperm	(II) Retain a part of endosperm
C. Non-albuminous	(III) No residual endosperm

Correct Answer: (a)
Albuminous seeds retain some endosperm (II). Perisperm is the persistent nucellus (I). Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm (III). These terms classify seeds based on stored food.

Q93. Wind pollination is quite common in:

Correct Answer: (a)
Grasses are predominantly wind-pollinated, with light and non-sticky pollen grains. Their flowers are often inconspicuous and lack nectar. Orchids are typically insect-pollinated, while legumes are often insect- or self-pollinated, and Vallisneria is water-pollinated.

Q94. Select correct statements for 'Polyembryony':
(i) Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed.
(ii) Common in Citrus and Mango.
(iii) Nucellar cells can form these embryos.

Correct Answer: (a)
Polyembryony is the presence of multiple embryos in a seed, commonly seen in Citrus and Mango. Nucellar cells can give rise to additional embryos, leading to genetic uniformity.

Q95. Assertion: Dioecy prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. Reason: Male and female flowers are present on different plants.

Correct Answer: (a)
Dioecy is the condition where male and female flowers occur on separate individuals, completely preventing self-pollination (autogamy and geitonogamy). This forces cross-pollination and promotes genetic diversity. The reason correctly describes the mechanism.

Q96. Match the terms in Column-I with their definitions in Column-II:

Column-I (Term)	Column-II (Definition)
A. Syngamy	(I) Fusion of two polar nuclei and one male gamete
B. Triple fusion	(II) Development of fruit without fertilisation
C. Parthenocarpy	(III) Fusion of one male gamete with egg cell
D. Apomixis	(IV) Production of seeds without fertilisation

Correct Answer: (a)
Syngamy is the fusion of a male gamete with the egg cell (III). Triple fusion is the fusion of a male gamete with two polar nuclei (I). Parthenocarpy is the development of fruit without fertilization (II). Apomixis is the formation of seeds without fertilization (IV). This sequence is standard in angiosperm reproduction.

Q97. Match the Following:

A. Pericarp	Wall of fruit
B. Perisperm	Persistent nucellus

Correct Answer: (a)
The pericarp is the wall of the fruit, derived from the ovary wall. Perisperm is the persistent nucellus, a nutritive tissue in some seeds. Both are distinct post-fertilization structures.

Q98. Assertion: The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell. Reason: It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.

Correct Answer: (b)
The generative cell is indeed small and embedded within the vegetative cell's cytoplasm. However, its spindle shape and dense cytoplasm do not explain why it floats; this is more a matter of its location and the surrounding vegetative cell structure. Both descriptions are accurate but independent.

Q99. Megasporogenesis is the formation of megaspores from the:

Correct Answer: (b)
Megasporogenesis involves the meiotic division of the megaspore mother cell (MMC) within the nucellus. This produces four haploid megaspores, of which usually only one survives. The functional megaspore then undergoes mitosis to form the embryo sac.

Q100. Regarding 'Seeds', which statements are true?
(i) They are the final product of sexual reproduction.
(ii) Dehydration and dormancy are crucial for storage.
(iii) They provide new genetic combinations leading to variations.

Correct Answer: (a)
Seeds are the end product of sexual reproduction in angiosperms. Their ability to dehydrate and remain dormant allows long-term storage. They also generate genetic diversity through recombination and segregation.