Q1. A popular brand of condom for males in India is:
Correct Answer: (b)
‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of condom for the male.
Q2. India initiated the 'family planning' programmes in the year:
Correct Answer: (b)
These programmes called ‘family planning’ were initiated in 1951.
Q3. Which contraceptive method also protects the user from contracting STIs and AIDS?
Correct Answer: (c)
Use of condoms has increased... due to its additional benefit of protecting the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Q4. ZIFT stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT–zygote intra fallopian transfer.
Q5. Match the hormone with its specific effect (Pills/IUDs):
Hormone/Ion
Effect
A. Progestogens
(I) Suppress sperm motility
B. Copper Ions
(II) Alter quality of cervical mucus
C. Estrogen-Progestogen
(III) Inhibit ovulation
Correct Answer: (a)
Mechanisms of chemical contraceptives (Page 44-45).
Q6. Regarding 'Lactational Amenorrhea', which is true? (i) Based on absence of menstruation during intense lactation. (ii) Chances of failure are very low. (iii) Effective up to six months after childbirth.
Correct Answer: (a)
Chances of failure of this method are actually high (Page 44).
Q7. GIFT is the transfer of a/an ______ into the fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (c)
Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube (GIFT).
Q8. Assertion: Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.
Reason: It has high contraceptive value with very few side effects.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true, but its non-steroidal nature is a chemical property, not the reason for its efficacy/safety.
Q9. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason: It is used for sex-determination leading to female foeticide.
Correct Answer: (a)
Misuse for sex selection is the reason for the statutory ban.
Q10. Regarding 'Hormone releasing IUDs': (i) Progestasert is an example. (ii) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation. (iii) Suppress sperm motility only.
Correct Answer: (a)
Copper IUDs suppress motility; hormone ones affect implantation and the cervix.
Q11. Identify the correct statements for IUDs: (i) Inserted by the user into the vagina. (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus. (iii) Ideal for spacing children.
Correct Answer: (a)
IUDs must be inserted by doctors/expert nurses, not the user.
Q12. Regarding 'ICSI': (i) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection. (ii) Sperm is injected into the fallopian tube. (iii) Sperm is injected directly into the ovum.
Correct Answer: (a)
Mechanism of ICSI (Page 48).
Q13. Sterilisation procedure in the female is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Sterilisation procedure in the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female, ‘tubectomy’.
Q14. Which of the following is a 'Natural' method of contraception?
Correct Answer: (b)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
Q15. Which of the following correctly describes 'ZIFT'? (i) Zygote or early embryos up to 8 blastomeres are transferred. (ii) Transfer occurs into the uterus. (iii) Transfer occurs into the fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT involves the fallopian tube; 8+ cells go to the uterus (IUT).
Q16. Assertion: ZIFT involves the transfer of an embryo into the uterus.
Reason: Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT involves transfer to the fallopian tube; IUT involves transfer to the uterus.
Q17. Identify true statements for 'Surgical methods': (i) Reversibility is very poor. (ii) They prevent gamete formation. (iii) They block gamete transport.
Q19. Regarding 'Infertility', which statements are true? (i) In India, the female is often blamed but the problem often lies with the male. (ii) Can be caused by drugs or psychological factors. (iii) AI is used when sperm count is low.
Correct Answer: (a)
Factors and treatments for infertility (Page 48).
Q20. Regarding 'IVF', which statements are correct? (i) Fertilisation in a test tube. (ii) Followed by embryo transfer. (iii) Used for couples where the male cannot inseminate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Overview of IVF/ET (Page 48).
Q21. The statutory ban on amniocentesis is primarily to legally check:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination is to legally check the increasing menace of female foeticides.
Q22. Assertion: India was the first country to initiate 'family planning' at a national level.
Reason: These programmes were initiated in 1951.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the initiation date is a fact, not the explanatory 'reason' why India was first.
Q23. Identify the correct phylum/group being described: (i) They provide medical assistance for menstrual problems. (ii) They offer post-natal care. (iii) They encourage breast feeding.
Correct Answer: (a)
Scope of RCH programmes (Page 42, 49).
Q24. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Reproductive Health' according to WHO? (i) Total well-being in physical aspects only. (ii) Emotional well-being. (iii) Social and Behavioural well-being.
Correct Answer: (a)
WHO definition covers physical, emotional, behavioural, and social aspects (not physical only).
Q25. Match the MTP legality grounds (2017 Amendment):
Ground
Requirement
A. Up to 12 weeks
(I) Opinion of one doctor
B. 12 to 24 weeks
(II) Opinion of two doctors
Correct Answer: (a)
Legal requirements for MTP in India (Page 46).
Q26. Select correct statements for 'MTP Act 2017': (i) Enacted to reduce illegal abortions. (ii) Ground for termination includes risk to the life of the woman. (iii) Legal only if the foetus is male.
Correct Answer: (a)
MTP for sex selection (foeticide) is illegal.
Q27. Match the contraceptive brand with its feature:
Column-I (Brand)
Column-II (Feature)
A. Saheli
(I) Popular condom for male
B. Nirodh
(II) Once-a-week oral pill
C. Multiload 375
(III) Copper releasing IUD
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard brand descriptions in the chapter.
Q28. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) was legalised in India in the year:
Correct Answer: (c)
Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some strict conditions.
Q29. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce children even after ______ of unprotected sexual co-habitation.
Correct Answer: (c)
Inability to conceive... even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called infertility.
Q30. The popular name for the current improved programmes related to reproduction is:
Correct Answer: (a)
Improved programmes... are currently in operation under the popular name ‘Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) programmes’.
Q31. IUDs are inserted by ______ in the uterus through vagina.
Correct Answer: (b)
IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus through vagina.
Q32. Identify the correct statements regarding India's population growth: (i) MMR and IMR have declined. (ii) World population was 2 billion in 1900. (iii) The growth rate according to census 2011 was less than 2%.
Correct Answer: (a)
All three statements are verified by the text in Section 3.2.
Q33. Assertion: Sex education in schools is necessary.
Reason: It provides right information and discourages children from believing in myths about sex-related aspects.
Correct Answer: (a)
Providing correct information is the primary goal of sex education.
Q34. Identify correct facts about 'Saheli': (i) Oral pill. (ii) High contraceptive value. (iii) Few side effects.
Correct Answer: (a)
Features of Saheli (Page 45).
Q35. Oral contraceptive pills for females must be taken daily for a period of ______ days.
Correct Answer: (c)
Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21 days.
Q36. In IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation), where does the fertilisation occur?
Correct Answer: (b)
In vitro fertilisation (IVF–fertilisation outside the body in almost similar conditions as that in the body).
Q37. IUI stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
IUI – intra-uterine insemination of the female.
Q38. The 'once a week' non-steroidal oral pill is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Saheli... is a ‘once a week’ pill with very few side effects.
Q39. MMR stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
The text lists maternal mortality rate (MMR) as a reason for population trends.
Q40. The 'fertile period' in a menstrual cycle is generally considered from day:
Correct Answer: (b)
Couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17... as chances of fertilisation are very high during this period, it is called the fertile period.
Q41. Regarding 'Vasectomy', which statements are correct? (i) Terminal method for males. (ii) Removal/tying of fallopian tube. (iii) Blocks gamete transport.
Correct Answer: (a)
Tubectomy involves the fallopian tube; Vasectomy involves the vas deferens.
Q42. Introduction of ______ in schools should be encouraged to provide right information to the young.
Correct Answer: (b)
Introduction of sex education in schools should also be encouraged to provide right information to the young.
Q43. Assertion: MTP is always a choice for birth control.
Reason: One is forced to use MTP to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to casual coitus.
Correct Answer: (a)
MTP is not a regular birth control method; it is a last resort.
Q44. Which are correct for 'Copper-T' (CuT)? (i) Copper ions suppress sperm motility. (ii) It is a barrier method. (iii) It is an Intra-Uterine Device.
Correct Answer: (a)
CuT is an IUD, not a barrier method.
Q45. Match the contraceptive methods with their categories:
Column-I (Method)
Column-II (Category)
A. Periodic abstinence
(I) Barrier
B. Condoms
(II) Natural
C. Vasectomy
(III) IUD
D. CuT
(IV) Surgical
Correct Answer: (a)
Contraceptive classifications as per the text.
Q46. Which of the following is true for MTP in India? (i) Legalised in 1971. (ii) Used to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rape. (iii) Essential if the pregnancy is harmful to the mother.
Correct Answer: (a)
Legality and conditions for MTP (Page 46).
Q47. Assertion: Population in India crossed 1.2 billion in 2011.
Reason: A rapid decline in MMR and IMR contributed to this growth.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lower death rates and infant mortality are primary drivers of population explosion.
Q48. Match the medical procedures with their use:
Procedure
Primary Use
A. Amniocentesis
(I) Voluntary abortion
B. MTP
(II) Genetic disorder test
C. AI
(III) Low sperm count treatment
Correct Answer: (a)
Clinical procedures described in the text.
Q49. Match the acronyms for Infertility treatment:
A. AI
Artificial Insemination
B. IUI
Intra-Uterine Insemination
C. ART
Assisted Reproductive Technologies
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard terminology in Section 3.5.
Q50. Match the following regarding contraceptive side effects:
A. Nausea
Contraceptive side effect
B. Abdominal pain
Contraceptive side effect
C. Breakthrough bleeding
Contraceptive side effect
Correct Answer: (a)
Side effects listed in Section 3.2 (Page 46).
Q51. According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate in India was:
Correct Answer: (c)
According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was less than 2 per cent.
Q52. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: (b)
MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
Q53. Match the following for STI symptoms:
A. Itching
STI symptom
B. Fluid discharge
STI symptom
C. Slight pain
STI symptom
Correct Answer: (a)
Early symptoms of STIs (Page 47).
Q54. Assertion: HIV infection is most dangerous among STIs.
Reason: It is not curable if detected early.
Correct Answer: (a)
HIV is dangerous, but the reason is false; HIV is one of the non-curable ones regardless of timing (unlike curable ones).
Q55. Barrier methods of contraception include which of the following?
Correct Answer: (b)
Barrier methods include condoms, diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults.
Q56. Match the IUD types with their examples:
Column-I (Type)
Column-II (Example)
A. Non-medicated IUD
(I) LNG-20
B. Copper releasing IUD
(II) Lippes loop
C. Hormone releasing IUD
(III) Multiload 375
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 3.2 descriptions of IUD categories.
Q57. Which cells are analyzed in amniocentesis to detect genetic disorders?
Correct Answer: (b)
In amniocentesis some of the amniotic fluid... is taken to analyse the fetal cells.
Q58. Match the following ART techniques:
Column-I
Column-II
A. ZIFT
(I) Embryo with > 8 blastomeres to Uterus
B. IUT
(II) Zygote to Fallopian tube
C. GIFT
(III) Sperm injected into ovum
D. ICSI
(IV) Ovum to Fallopian tube
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions of Assisted Reproductive Technologies.
Q59. Match the surgical procedure with the organ involved:
Column-I (Procedure)
Column-II (Organ)
A. Vasectomy
(I) Fallopian tube
B. Tubectomy
(II) Vas deferens
Correct Answer: (a)
Surgical methods (Page 45).
Q60. Assertion: Hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason: They alter the quality of cervical mucus.
Correct Answer: (a)
Hormonal changes directly affect the mucus barrier at the cervix.
Q61. Assertion: Vasectomy is a highly effective method.
Reason: It prevents the formation of gametes in the male.
Correct Answer: (a)
Vasectomy prevents transport of gametes, not their formation.
Q62. Which are correct regarding 'Lactational Amenorrhea'? (i) No medicines or devices are used. (ii) Side effects are almost nil. (iii) High failure rate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Characteristics of lactational amenorrhea (Page 44).
Q63. Assertion: Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason: They protect the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Correct Answer: (a)
Health safety beyond contraception is a major driver for condom use.
Q64. Identify correct statements for 'Sexually Transmitted Infections' (STIs): (i) HIV, Hepatitis-B are STIs. (ii) Can be transmitted by sharing needles. (iii) Infected females are always symptomatic.
Correct Answer: (a)
Infected females are often asymptomatic (Page 47).
Q65. The statutory marriageable age for females and males in India is ______ respectively.
Correct Answer: (b)
Statutory raising of marriageable age of the female to 18 years and that of males to 21 years.
Q66. Which part is removed or tied up in a vasectomy?
Correct Answer: (c)
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up.
Q68. Identify correct features of 'Amniocentesis': (i) Tests amniotic fluid. (ii) Detects Down Syndrome. (iii) Detects Sickle-cell anemia.
Correct Answer: (a)
Clinical uses of amniocentesis (Page 42).
Q69. In ICSI, the sperm is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is a procedure... in which a sperm is directly injected into the ovum.
Q70. The oral contraceptive 'Saheli' was developed at:
Correct Answer: (a)
‘Saheli’–a new oral contraceptive for the females–was developed by scientists at Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India.
Q71. Assertion: GIFT is useful for females who cannot produce an ovum.
Reason: It provides a suitable environment for fertilisation in their own fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (a)
GIFT transfers a donor ovum to a recipient who can carry the pregnancy.
Q72. The 'test tube baby' programme refers to which technique?
Correct Answer: (c)
IVF followed by embryo transfer (ET)... is popularly known as test tube baby programme.
Q73. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method of birth control.
Reason: Couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
Correct Answer: (a)
The method is defined by avoiding the most fertile window.
Q74. Surgical methods of contraception are also called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are generally advised as a terminal method.
Q75. Which of the following phylum/group is being described? (i) They avoid sex with unknown partners. (ii) They always use condoms during coitus. (iii) They seek timely medical help.
Correct Answer: (a)
Principles of STI prevention (Page 47).
Q76. Match the following for Reproductive health goals:
A. Counseling
Awareness
B. Medical facilities
Treatment/Assistance
Correct Answer: (a)
RCH goals as per Summary (Page 49).
Correct Answer: (b)
Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms.
Q78. Correct statements for 'STIs' include: (i) Can lead to ectopic pregnancies. (ii) Can cause still births. (iii) Can lead to cancer of the reproductive tract.
Correct Answer: (a)
Complications of STIs (Page 47).
Q79. What was the approximate world population in the year 2011?
Correct Answer: (c)
The world population... rocketed to about 6 billion by 2000 and 7.2 billion in 2011.
Q80. Which of the following is correct? (i) Adoptions are one of the best methods for parenthood in India. (ii) ART requires high precision handling. (iii) MTP accounted for 1/5th of conceived pregnancies worldwide.
Correct Answer: (a)
Final observations from the ART and MTP sections.
Q81. Assertion: STIs are a major threat to a healthy society.
Reason: They can lead to complications like Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID) and infertility.
Correct Answer: (a)
The long-term health consequences make STIs a significant social threat.
Q82. In amniocentesis, the chromosomal pattern is tested using cells found in the:
Correct Answer: (c)
In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to analyse the fetal cells.
Q83. Assertion: Condoms provide privacy to the user.
Reason: They are disposable and can be self-inserted.
Correct Answer: (a)
The ease of use and disposal allows for private contraceptive use.
Q84. Assertion: MTP is considered relatively safe during the second trimester.
Reason: First trimester abortions are much riskier than second trimester.
Correct Answer: (a)
MTP is safe in the first trimester (up to 12 weeks) and riskier in the second.
Q85. Assertion: Sterilisation is a terminal method to prevent further pregnancies.
Reason: Reversibility of surgical methods is very poor.
Correct Answer: (a)
Poor reversibility makes it a 'terminal' choice.
Q86. According to the WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in which aspects of reproduction?
Correct Answer: (b)
According to the WHO, reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional, behavioural and social.
Q87. According to census 2011, India's population crossed ______ in May 2011.
Correct Answer: (c)
Our population... crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011.
Q88. Which of the following are characteristics of an 'Ideal Contraceptive'? (i) User-friendly and easily available. (ii) Effective and reversible. (iii) Should interfere with sexual drive.
Correct Answer: (a)
An ideal contraceptive should not in any way interfere with sexual drive.
Q89. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is not completely curable?
Correct Answer: (c)
Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infections, other diseases are completely curable.
Q90. Transfer of an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intra uterine transfer).
Q91. Assertion: Lactational amenorrhea is a highly reliable long-term contraceptive.
Reason: It is effective only up to a maximum period of six months following parturition.
Correct Answer: (a)
The assertion is false because chances of failure are high, and the reason correctly states its limited time frame.
Q92. Match the following statistics (2011):
Metric
Value
A. India's population
(I) Less than 2%
B. World population
(II) 1.2 billion
C. Growth rate
(III) 7.2 billion
Correct Answer: (a)
Census 2011 data from section 3.2.
Q93. Artificial insemination (AI) is used primarily when the male partner has:
Correct Answer: (b)
Infertility cases either due to inability... or due to very low sperm counts... could be corrected by artificial insemination.
Q94. Which are correct for 'Withdrawal method'? (i) Also called coitus interruptus. (ii) Male partner withdraws before ejaculation. (iii) It is a barrier method.
Correct Answer: (a)
Withdrawal is a natural method, not a barrier.
Q95. Assertion: Copper releasing IUDs are effective contraceptives.
Reason: Cu ions released suppress sperm motility.
Correct Answer: (a)
The mechanism of Cu ions directly explains the efficacy of these IUDs.
Q96. Assertion: Infertility is only a problem in the female partner.
Reason: More often than not, the problem of childlessness lies in the male partner.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both partners can contribute to infertility; the text notes the male is often the cause.
Q97. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing the penis from the vagina just before:
Correct Answer: (b)
Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is another method in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation.
Q98. Lactational amenorrhea is effective as a contraceptive for a maximum period of ______ months following parturition.
Correct Answer: (b)
Lactational amenorrhea... has been reported to be effective only upto a maximum period of six months following parturition.
Q99. Which of the following are true for 'Saheli'? (i) Once-a-week pill. (ii) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow. (iii) Contains steroidal components.
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli is a non-steroidal preparation.
Q100. Match the STIs with their curability status:
Column-I (STI)
Column-II (Status)
A. Gonorrhoea
(I) Not completely curable
B. Syphilis
(II) Completely curable
C. Hepatitis-B
(III) Completely curable
D. HIV
(IV) Not completely curable
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on section 3.4 (Hepatitis-B, herpes, HIV are not curable).
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