Correct Answer: (a)
Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic disorders by analysing fetal cells. MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is the voluntary termination of pregnancy. Artificial Insemination (AI) is used when the male has a low sperm count or poor motility. Thus, A–II, B–I, C–III is correct.
Q2. A popular brand of condom for males in India is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Nirodh is a well‑known brand of male condom in India, promoted by the government as part of family planning initiatives. It is widely available, affordable, and helps prevent pregnancy as well as reduce the risk of STIs. The name 'Nirodh' itself signifies protection, and its use has been encouraged through awareness campaigns.
Q3. The oral contraceptive 'Saheli' was developed at:
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli, a popular non‑steroidal oral contraceptive, was developed by scientists at the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India. It is a once‑a‑week pill with minimal side effects, making it a convenient choice for many women. CDRI's contribution to reproductive health research has been significant in providing affordable and effective contraceptive options.
Q4. Assertion: MTP is always a choice for birth control.
Reason: One is forced to use MTP to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to casual coitus.
Correct Answer: (d)
MTP is not a regular method of birth control; it is an emergency measure to terminate an unwanted pregnancy. The assertion is false. The reason correctly states that MTP may be used when pregnancies occur due to casual intercourse or contraceptive failure, making it a last‑resort option. Hence, assertion is false but reason is true.
Q5. MMR stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
MMR stands for Maternal Mortality Rate, which is a key indicator of reproductive health and healthcare quality in a region. It measures the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births due to pregnancy‑related complications. A declining MMR reflects better antenatal care, skilled attendance at delivery, and improved emergency obstetric services.
Correct Answer: (b)
Copper‑releasing IUDs, such as CuT, release copper ions that are toxic to sperm. These ions inhibit sperm motility and reduce their ability to fertilise the ovum. The copper also enhances the inflammatory response in the uterus, making the environment hostile for sperm and preventing implantation. This dual action makes copper IUDs highly effective.
Q7. Coitus interruptus involves the male partner withdrawing the penis from the vagina just before:
Correct Answer: (b)
Coitus interruptus, also known as the withdrawal method, is a traditional birth control technique where the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation. The aim is to prevent sperm from entering the female reproductive tract. This method is highly unreliable due to the presence of sperm in pre‑ejaculatory fluid and the difficulty of perfect timing, leading to a high failure rate.
Q8. Identify the correct phylum/group being described: (i) They provide medical assistance for menstrual problems. (ii) They offer post-natal care. (iii) They encourage breast feeding.
Correct Answer: (a)
Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programmes cover a wide range of services including menstrual health, prenatal and postnatal care, breastfeeding promotion, and child immunisation. These are core components of RCH.
Q9. According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate in India was:
Correct Answer: (c)
The 2011 census of India reported that the population growth rate had declined to less than 2% per annum. This deceleration is a positive sign, reflecting the success of various family planning and health awareness programmes. However, the absolute numbers continue to rise, and sustained efforts are needed to stabilise the population.
Q10. Match the following for Barrier methods:
Device
Nature
A. Diaphragms
(I) Reusable
B. Condoms
(II) Disposable
Correct Answer: (a)
Diaphragms and cervical caps are barrier devices that can be washed and reused. Condoms are designed for single use and should be disposed of after each act. Therefore, A–I and B–II is correct.
Q11. Which cells are analyzed in amniocentesis to detect genetic disorders?
Correct Answer: (b)
Amniocentesis analyses fetal cells that are shed into the amniotic fluid. These cells are primarily skin and other fetal cells, and they contain the complete genetic makeup of the foetus. After culturing, the chromosomes are examined for numerical and structural abnormalities, enabling prenatal diagnosis of conditions like Down syndrome and other genetic disorders.
Q12. Identify the correct statements regarding India's population growth: (i) MMR and IMR have declined. (ii) World population was 2 billion in 1900. (iii) The growth rate according to census 2011 was less than 2%.
Correct Answer: (a)
All three statements are correct: MMR and IMR have declined over time; the world population was approximately 2 billion in 1900; and the 2011 census recorded India's growth rate below 2%. These facts are supported by demographic data.
Q13. Assertion: HIV infection is most dangerous among STIs.
Reason: It is not curable if detected early.
Correct Answer: (c)
HIV is indeed one of the most dangerous STIs due to its fatal progression to AIDS and its incurable nature. However, the reason is false because HIV is not curable even if detected early; there is no cure at any stage. Therefore, the assertion is true but the reason is false.
Q14. Assertion: Infertility is only a problem in the female partner.
Reason: More often than not, the problem of childlessness lies in the male partner.
Correct Answer: (d)
Infertility is not a problem confined to females; it can be due to factors in either partner. In fact, male factor infertility is quite common, and sometimes the male is the sole cause. The assertion is therefore false. The reason correctly states that the problem often lies with the male, which is a true statement. Hence, the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Q15. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that is not completely curable?
Correct Answer: (c)
Among the listed STIs, genital herpes is caused by a virus (herpes simplex virus) and, like other viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis‑B, is not completely curable. Although antiviral medications can manage symptoms and reduce outbreaks, the virus remains in the body lifelong. Bacterial infections like gonorrhoea and syphilis are treatable with antibiotics.
Q16. Identify correct facts about 'Saheli': (i) Oral pill. (ii) High contraceptive value. (iii) Few side effects.
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli is an oral pill with high contraceptive efficacy and very few side effects. It is a non‑steroidal preparation taken once a week. All three statements are correct.
Q17. Identify the correct statements for IUDs: (i) Inserted by the user into the vagina. (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperms within uterus. (iii) Ideal for spacing children.
Correct Answer: (a)
IUDs are inserted by healthcare professionals, not by the user. They work by increasing phagocytosis of sperm and altering the uterine environment. They are effective for spacing children. Thus, (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Q18. Which of the following are true for 'Saheli'? (i) Once-a-week pill. (ii) Developed at CDRI, Lucknow. (iii) Contains steroidal components.
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli is a once‑a‑week non‑steroidal pill developed at CDRI, Lucknow. It does not contain steroidal components; it is a selective estrogen receptor modulator. Therefore, (i) and (ii) are true, but (iii) is false.
Q19. Match the contraceptive brand with its feature:
Column-I (Brand)
Column-II (Feature)
A. Saheli
(I) Popular condom for male
B. Nirodh
(II) Once-a-week oral pill
C. Multiload 375
(III) Copper releasing IUD
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli is a once‑a‑week non‑steroidal oral pill. Nirodh is a popular brand of male condom. Multiload 375 is a copper‑releasing IUD. Thus, the correct matching is A–II, B–I, C–III.
Q20. The popular name for the current improved programmes related to reproduction is:
Correct Answer: (a)
The earlier family planning programmes were upgraded and are now widely known as Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programmes. These programmes encompass a broader range of services including maternal care, child health, contraception, and adolescent health. The RCH approach focuses on the overall well-being of the reproductive age group and ensures safe motherhood and child survival.
Q21. Which are correct for 'Withdrawal method'? (i) Also called coitus interruptus. (ii) Male partner withdraws before ejaculation. (iii) It is a barrier method.
Correct Answer: (a)
The withdrawal method is known as coitus interruptus, where the male withdraws before ejaculation. It is a natural method, not a barrier method. Thus, (i) and (ii) are true.
Q22. Barrier methods of contraception include which of the following?
Correct Answer: (b)
Barrier methods physically prevent the sperm from reaching the ovum by creating a barrier at the cervix or covering the penis. Common barrier contraceptives include condoms (for both males and females), diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults. They are widely used because they are easy to use, have minimal side effects, and also offer protection against sexually transmitted infections.
Q23. Match the following for STI symptoms:
A. Itching
STI symptom
B. Fluid discharge
STI symptom
C. Slight pain
STI symptom
Correct Answer: (a)
Itching, abnormal discharge, and pain in the genital region are common early symptoms of many STIs. These symptoms should not be ignored, and timely medical consultation is advised to prevent complications and further transmission.
Q24. Regarding 'Vasectomy', which statements are correct? (i) Terminal method for males. (ii) Removal/tying of fallopian tube. (iii) Blocks gamete transport.
Correct Answer: (a)
Vasectomy is a permanent (terminal) method for males. It involves cutting or tying the vas deferens, not the fallopian tube. The procedure blocks the transport of sperm. Hence, (i) and (iii) are correct.
Q25. Select correct statements for 'MTP Act 2017': (i) Enacted to reduce illegal abortions. (ii) Ground for termination includes risk to the life of the woman. (iii) Legal only if the foetus is male.
Correct Answer: (a)
The MTP Act was enacted to legalise safe abortions and reduce illegal ones. Termination is allowed when the mother's life is at risk or in cases of foetal abnormalities. Sex‑selective abortion is illegal. So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q26. Regarding 'Infertility', which statements are true? (i) In India, the female is often blamed but the problem often lies with the male. (ii) Can be caused by drugs or psychological factors. (iii) AI is used when sperm count is low.
Correct Answer: (a)
Infertility can affect either partner, and male factor infertility is common. It can be caused by physical, psychological, or drug‑related factors. Artificial insemination (AI) is a treatment option for low sperm count. All statements are true.
Q27. Which of the following is true for MTP in India? (i) Legalised in 1971. (ii) Used to get rid of unwanted pregnancy due to rape. (iii) Essential if the pregnancy is harmful to the mother.
Correct Answer: (a)
MTP was legalised in India in 1971. It can be performed when pregnancy is unwanted (e.g., due to rape) or when continuation of pregnancy poses a risk to the mother's health. All three statements are correct.
Q28. Which contraceptive method also protects the user from contracting STIs and AIDS?
Correct Answer: (c)
Condoms are the only contraceptive method that provides dual protection—preventing unwanted pregnancies and reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) including HIV/AIDS. They act as a physical barrier that blocks the exchange of bodily fluids during intercourse. IUDs, pills, and surgical methods offer no protection against STIs.
Q29. Match the following statistics (2011):
Metric
Value
A. India's population
(I) Less than 2%
B. World population
(II) 1.2 billion
C. Growth rate
(III) 7.2 billion
Correct Answer: (a)
India's population crossed 1.2 billion in 2011. The world population was around 7.2 billion in the same year. India's population growth rate was less than 2% according to the 2011 census. Hence, A–II, B–III, C–I is correct.
Q30. Assertion: Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.
Reason: It has high contraceptive value with very few side effects.
Correct Answer: (b)
Saheli is indeed a non‑steroidal oral contraceptive, and it is known for its high efficacy and low side‑effect profile. However, its non‑steroidal nature is a chemical property, not a consequence of its high contraceptive value and few side effects. The reason does not explain why it is non‑steroidal; it describes its advantages. Therefore, both statements are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
Q31. According to the WHO, reproductive health means total well-being in which aspects of reproduction?
Correct Answer: (b)
According to the World Health Organization, reproductive health is not merely the absence of disease but a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being in all matters related to the reproductive system. It includes physical, emotional, behavioural, and social aspects to ensure healthy reproduction and family life. A holistic approach is essential for individuals to lead a responsible and satisfying reproductive life.
Q32. Assertion: Hormone releasing IUDs make the cervix hostile to sperms.
Reason: They alter the quality of cervical mucus.
Correct Answer: (a)
Hormone‑releasing IUDs, such as LNG‑20, release progestogens that thicken the cervical mucus, making it impenetrable to sperm. This alteration in mucus quality directly makes the cervix hostile to sperm. Thus, the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Q33. Artificial insemination (AI) is used primarily when the male partner has:
Correct Answer: (b)
Artificial insemination (AI) is a technique where sperm is artificially introduced into the female reproductive tract to facilitate fertilisation. It is primarily employed when the male partner has a very low sperm count or poor sperm motility, making natural conception difficult. AI can be done with the partner's sperm or donor sperm, depending on the situation.
Q34. The statutory marriageable age for females and males in India is ______ respectively.
Correct Answer: (b)
In India, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for females and 21 years for males. This legislation was enacted to promote the health and well‑being of young individuals, reduce maternal and infant mortality, and prevent early pregnancies. Raising the marriageable age also supports educational and career opportunities for women, contributing to social and economic development.
Q35. Assertion: Sex education in schools is necessary.
Reason: It provides right information and discourages children from believing in myths about sex-related aspects.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sex education is essential because it provides accurate, age‑appropriate information about reproductive health and sexuality. It helps young people understand the biological and emotional aspects of growing up, dispels myths, and encourages responsible behaviour. The reason directly explains why sex education is necessary, as it serves to inform and protect adolescents from misinformation and risky behaviours.
Q36. In amniocentesis, the chromosomal pattern is tested using cells found in the:
Correct Answer: (c)
Amniocentesis involves the withdrawal of a small amount of amniotic fluid that surrounds the developing foetus. This fluid contains cells shed by the foetus, which are then cultured and analysed for chromosomal abnormalities. The procedure is typically performed around the 16th week of pregnancy and can help detect conditions like Down syndrome and other genetic disorders.
Q37. Transfer of an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
When an embryo has developed beyond the 8‑cell stage (more than 8 blastomeres), it is transferred directly into the uterus. This procedure is called Intra Uterine Transfer (IUT). IUT is performed when the embryo is advanced enough to implant in the uterine lining, and it avoids the need for the embryo to travel through the fallopian tube.
Q38. The 'fertile period' in a menstrual cycle is generally considered from day:
Correct Answer: (b)
The fertile period is the time during which conception is most likely, typically from day 10 to day 17 of a 28‑day menstrual cycle. This window includes the day of ovulation (around day 14) and a few days before and after, due to the lifespan of sperm and the ovum. Couples using natural methods avoid intercourse during these days to prevent pregnancy.
Q39. Which of the following phylum/group is being described? (i) They avoid sex with unknown partners. (ii) They always use condoms during coitus. (iii) They seek timely medical help.
Correct Answer: (a)
The statements describe measures to prevent sexually transmitted infections: avoiding high‑risk sexual contact, using condoms, and seeking medical care for symptoms. These are principles of STI prevention.
Q40. Regarding 'Lactational Amenorrhea', which is true? (i) Based on absence of menstruation during intense lactation. (ii) Chances of failure are very low. (iii) Effective up to six months after childbirth.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lactational amenorrhea relies on the natural suppression of ovulation due to intense breastfeeding. It is effective only up to six months postpartum. However, the failure rate is actually high, making (ii) false. Hence, (i) and (iii) are true.
Q41. Match the following for Reproductive health goals:
A. Counseling
Awareness
B. Medical facilities
Treatment/Assistance
Correct Answer: (a)
Reproductive health programmes include counselling to raise awareness about reproductive issues, contraception, and safe practices. They also provide medical facilities for diagnosis, treatment, and assistance related to reproductive health.
Q42. IUDs are inserted by ______ in the uterus through vagina.
Correct Answer: (b)
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) must be inserted by trained healthcare professionals such as doctors or expert nurses. The procedure is performed in a clinical setting to ensure proper placement and to minimise the risk of infection or perforation. Self‑insertion is not advisable and can lead to serious complications.
Q43. Which of the following is correct? (i) Adoptions are one of the best methods for parenthood in India. (ii) ART requires high precision handling. (iii) MTP accounted for 1/5th of conceived pregnancies worldwide.
Correct Answer: (a)
Adoption is a commendable option for couples unable to have children. Assisted Reproductive Technologies require sophisticated lab facilities and precise handling. It is estimated that about one‑fifth of all pregnancies worldwide are terminated by MTP. Hence, all statements are correct.
Q44. Match the contraceptive methods with their categories:
Column-I (Method)
Column-II (Category)
A. Periodic abstinence
(I) Barrier
B. Condoms
(II) Natural
C. Vasectomy
(III) IUD
D. CuT
(IV) Surgical
Correct Answer: (a)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method that involves avoiding intercourse during the fertile window. Condoms are barrier methods that physically block sperm. Vasectomy is a surgical sterilisation method, while CuT (copper‑releasing IUD) falls under the IUD category. The correct matching is A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III.
Q45. Match the STIs with their curability status:
Column-I (STI)
Column-II (Status)
A. Gonorrhoea
(I) Not completely curable
B. Syphilis
(II) Completely curable
C. Hepatitis-B
(III) Completely curable
D. HIV
(IV) Not completely curable
Correct Answer: (a)
Gonorrhoea and syphilis are bacterial infections that can be completely cured with antibiotics. Hepatitis‑B and HIV are viral infections; while Hepatitis‑B can be managed, it is not completely curable in all cases, and HIV is incurable. Therefore, the correct match is A–II, B–III, C–I, D–IV.
Q46. According to census 2011, India's population crossed ______ in May 2011.
Correct Answer: (c)
The 2011 census of India recorded the population at over 1.21 billion, and it crossed the 1.2 billion mark in May 2011. This made India the second most populous country in the world after China. The rapid growth has been a significant challenge for the nation's resources and development, prompting continuous family planning and health initiatives.
Q47. Assertion: Population in India crossed 1.2 billion in 2011.
Reason: A rapid decline in MMR and IMR contributed to this growth.
Correct Answer: (a)
India's population growth has been fueled by a significant decline in Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) and Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) due to better healthcare. Lower death rates and improved survival of infants lead to a larger population. This decline directly contributes to the population increase, making the reason a correct explanation for the assertion.
Q48. Introduction of ______ in schools should be encouraged to provide right information to the young.
Correct Answer: (b)
Sex education in schools is crucial to dispel myths and misconceptions about reproductive health. It provides accurate information about puberty, reproduction, safe sexual practices, and prevention of sexually transmitted infections. This knowledge empowers young individuals to make informed decisions and develop a healthy attitude towards their own bodies and relationships.
Q49. Lactational amenorrhea is effective as a contraceptive for a maximum period of ______ months following parturition.
Correct Answer: (b)
Lactational amenorrhea refers to the natural absence of menstruation and suppression of ovulation during intense and frequent breastfeeding. It can serve as a contraceptive method for up to six months after childbirth, provided the mother is exclusively breastfeeding and has not resumed menstruation. However, its effectiveness diminishes after six months, and the chances of pregnancy increase significantly.
Q50. Infertility is defined as the inability to produce children even after ______ of unprotected sexual co-habitation.
Correct Answer: (c)
Infertility is clinically defined as the failure to conceive after two years of regular unprotected sexual intercourse. This time frame allows for the natural variation in fertility and accounts for the fact that many couples may take up to two years to conceive. Both male and female factors can contribute to infertility, and medical evaluation is recommended after this period.
Q51. Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method of birth control.
Reason: Couples avoid coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
Correct Answer: (a)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method because it does not involve any drugs or devices. It relies on avoiding intercourse during the fertile window (day 10 to 17). The reason defines the specific practice, thereby correctly explaining what periodic abstinence is and why it is natural. Both are true and the reason supports the assertion.
Q52. Regarding 'Hormone releasing IUDs': (i) Progestasert is an example. (ii) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation. (iii) Suppress sperm motility only.
Correct Answer: (a)
Progestasert is a hormone‑releasing IUD that releases progesterone. These IUDs alter cervical mucus and make the uterus less suitable for implantation. They do not solely suppress sperm motility; they have multiple actions. Therefore, (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q53. Which are correct regarding 'Lactational Amenorrhea'? (i) No medicines or devices are used. (ii) Side effects are almost nil. (iii) High failure rate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lactational amenorrhea is a natural method without drugs or devices, has virtually no side effects, but has a high failure rate compared to other methods. All three statements are correct.
Q54. Assertion: Lactational amenorrhea is a highly reliable long-term contraceptive.
Reason: It is effective only up to a maximum period of six months following parturition.
Correct Answer: (d)
Lactational amenorrhea is not highly reliable as a long‑term method; its failure rate is relatively high, and it is only effective for a maximum of six months after childbirth. The assertion is therefore false. The reason, however, correctly states the time limitation of this method. Thus, the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Q55. Correct statements for 'STIs' include: (i) Can lead to ectopic pregnancies. (ii) Can cause still births. (iii) Can lead to cancer of the reproductive tract.
Correct Answer: (a)
STIs can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, which may lead to ectopic pregnancy. They can also cause stillbirths and, in some cases (e.g., HPV), lead to cervical cancer. All three complications are possible.
Q56. An example of a non-medicated IUD is:
Correct Answer: (c)
The Lippes loop is a classic example of a non‑medicated IUD, which is made of plastic and does not release any hormones or copper. It works by causing a local inflammatory response in the uterus that prevents implantation. While effective, it has largely been replaced by more advanced IUDs that offer better efficacy and fewer side effects.
Q57. The 'once a week' non-steroidal oral pill is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Saheli is a unique non‑steroidal oral contraceptive that is taken only once a week. It contains ormeloxifene, a selective estrogen receptor modulator, and has very few side effects. This convenience makes it a popular choice among women in India. It was developed by CDRI, Lucknow, and is a significant achievement in the field of contraceptive research.
Q58. Which are correct for 'Copper-T' (CuT)? (i) Copper ions suppress sperm motility. (ii) It is a barrier method. (iii) It is an Intra-Uterine Device.
Correct Answer: (a)
Copper‑T (CuT) is an IUD that releases copper ions to reduce sperm motility and fertilising capacity. It is not a barrier method; it acts inside the uterus. Thus, (i) and (iii) are correct.
Q59. Sterilisation procedure in the female is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Tubectomy is the sterilisation procedure performed on females, in which a portion of the fallopian tube is removed or tied to prevent the egg from meeting sperm. It is a permanent method and is usually done under local or general anaesthesia. Vasectomy is the male counterpart, while MTP refers to medical termination of pregnancy.
Q60. Assertion: Sterilisation is a terminal method to prevent further pregnancies.
Reason: Reversibility of surgical methods is very poor.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sterilisation (vasectomy or tubectomy) is considered a terminal method because reversal is extremely difficult and rarely successful. This poor reversibility makes it a permanent choice for contraception. Hence, the reason correctly explains why sterilisation is a terminal method.
Q61. GIFT is the transfer of a/an ______ into the fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (c)
Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) involves transferring unfertilised ova (eggs) into the fallopian tube of a recipient. This technique is used when the female partner is unable to produce ova, and a donor's ova are collected and placed in the fallopian tube along with sperm, allowing fertilisation to occur naturally in the body.
Q62. Match the hormone with its specific effect (Pills/IUDs):
Hormone/Ion
Effect
A. Progestogens
(I) Suppress sperm motility
B. Copper Ions
(II) Alter quality of cervical mucus
C. Estrogen-Progestogen
(III) Inhibit ovulation
Correct Answer: (a)
Progestogens thicken cervical mucus, making it hostile to sperm. Copper ions released from IUDs reduce sperm motility and fertilising capacity. Estrogen‑progestogen combinations in pills inhibit ovulation by suppressing gonadotropins. Hence, the correct match is A–II, B–I, C–III.
Q63. Assertion: Vasectomy is a highly effective method.
Reason: It prevents the formation of gametes in the male.
Correct Answer: (c)
Vasectomy is indeed a highly effective contraceptive method, with failure rates under 1%. However, the reason is incorrect because vasectomy does not prevent gamete (sperm) formation; it only blocks the transport of sperm through the vas deferens. Sperm are still produced in the testes but are reabsorbed. Thus, assertion is true but reason is false.
Q64. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: (b)
MTPs are relatively safe when performed during the first trimester, i.e., up to 12 weeks of pregnancy. During this period, the procedure is less complicated and the risks to the mother are minimal. Beyond 12 weeks, the risks increase, and the procedure requires the opinion of two doctors as per the MTP Act.
Q65. Identify true statements for 'Surgical methods': (i) Reversibility is very poor. (ii) They prevent gamete formation. (iii) They block gamete transport.
Correct Answer: (a)
Surgical methods (vasectomy and tubectomy) are permanent with poor reversibility. They block the transport of gametes but do not affect gamete formation. Hence, (i) and (iii) are correct.
Q66. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused.
Reason: It is used for sex-determination leading to female foeticide.
Correct Answer: (a)
Although amniocentesis is a valuable diagnostic tool, it has been misused for sex determination. This misuse has led to a preference for male children and a subsequent increase in female foeticide. The statutory ban was imposed precisely because of this misuse. Thus, the reason correctly explains why amniocentesis is considered misused, and both the assertion and reason are true.
Q67. Regarding 'ICSI': (i) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection. (ii) Sperm is injected into the fallopian tube. (iii) Sperm is injected directly into the ovum.
Correct Answer: (a)
ICSI stands for Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection. The procedure involves injecting a single sperm directly into the cytoplasm of the ovum, not into the fallopian tube. Therefore, (i) and (iii) are correct.
Q68. In ICSI, the sperm is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is a procedure in which a single sperm is injected directly into the cytoplasm of a mature ovum using a fine needle. This technique is particularly useful in cases of severe male infertility, such as low sperm count or poor sperm motility. It bypasses the need for the sperm to penetrate the egg's outer layers.
Q69. Assertion: ZIFT involves the transfer of an embryo into the uterus.
Reason: Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus.
Correct Answer: (d)
ZIFT specifically involves transferring a zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube, not the uterus. So the assertion is false. The reason, however, is true: embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT). Therefore, the assertion is false but the reason is true.
Q70. Which of the following are characteristics of an 'Ideal Contraceptive'? (i) User-friendly and easily available. (ii) Effective and reversible. (iii) Should interfere with sexual drive.
Correct Answer: (a)
An ideal contraceptive should be user‑friendly, easily accessible, highly effective, and reversible. It should not interfere with sexual drive or pleasure. Statement (iii) is false, so the correct answer is (i) and (ii).
Q71. Match the following ART techniques:
Column-I
Column-II
A. ZIFT
(I) Embryo with > 8 blastomeres to Uterus
B. IUT
(II) Zygote to Fallopian tube
C. GIFT
(III) Sperm injected into ovum
D. ICSI
(IV) Ovum to Fallopian tube
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT transfers the zygote to the fallopian tube. IUT transfers embryos with more than 8 blastomeres directly into the uterus. GIFT involves transferring an ovum into the fallopian tube. ICSI is the direct injection of sperm into the ovum. Thus, the correct mapping is A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III.
Q72. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) was legalised in India in the year:
Correct Answer: (c)
The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was passed by the Indian Parliament in 1971, legalising induced abortions under specific conditions. The Act was enacted to reduce the incidence of illegal and unsafe abortions, thereby protecting women's health. It laid down guidelines regarding the gestational age and the medical practitioners qualified to perform the procedure.
Q73. Assertion: MTP is considered relatively safe during the second trimester.
Reason: First trimester abortions are much riskier than second trimester.
Correct Answer: (a)
MTP is not safer in the second trimester; it is actually safer and less risky during the first trimester (up to 12 weeks). The assertion that it is safe in the second trimester is incorrect. The reason is also false because first trimester abortions carry fewer risks. Therefore, both the assertion and the reason are false.
Q74. What was the approximate world population in the year 2011?
Correct Answer: (c)
The world population has grown rapidly over the past century. It reached about 6 billion by 2000 and further increased to approximately 7.2 billion in 2011. This dramatic rise is attributed to improved healthcare, reduced mortality rates, and increased life expectancy. Population dynamics continue to be a major global concern for sustainable development.
Q75. Which of the following correctly describes 'ZIFT'? (i) Zygote or early embryos up to 8 blastomeres are transferred. (ii) Transfer occurs into the uterus. (iii) Transfer occurs into the fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT involves transferring the zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube, not the uterus. Thus, (i) and (iii) are correct, while (ii) is false.
Q76. Match the following regarding contraceptive side effects:
A. Nausea
Contraceptive side effect
B. Abdominal pain
Contraceptive side effect
C. Breakthrough bleeding
Contraceptive side effect
Correct Answer: (a)
Nausea, abdominal pain, and breakthrough bleeding are all known side effects of hormonal contraceptives, particularly oral pills. These effects are usually temporary and may diminish with continued use.
Q77. In IVF (In Vitro Fertilisation), where does the fertilisation occur?
Correct Answer: (b)
In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) involves fertilising an ovum with sperm outside the female body, in a laboratory dish under controlled conditions. The term 'in vitro' literally means 'in glass'. After fertilisation, the resulting embryo is cultured for a few days and then transferred into the woman's uterus for implantation.
Q78. IUI stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
IUI stands for Intra‑Uterine Insemination, a form of artificial insemination where processed sperm is directly deposited into the uterus around the time of ovulation. This procedure increases the number of sperm reaching the fallopian tubes, thereby improving the chances of fertilisation. It is a simple and relatively non‑invasive treatment for certain types of infertility.
Q79. Assertion: Condoms provide privacy to the user.
Reason: They are disposable and can be self-inserted.
Correct Answer: (a)
Condoms are easy to use, available without prescription, and can be disposed of discreetly. Their self‑applicable nature allows individuals to use them without visiting a doctor, thus maintaining privacy. The reason explains why condoms afford privacy, making both statements true and the explanation correct.
Q80. Assertion: India was the first country to initiate 'family planning' at a national level.
Reason: These programmes were initiated in 1951.
Correct Answer: (b)
India was indeed the first country to start a national family planning programme, and it began in 1951. However, the reason merely provides the year of initiation; it does not explain why India was the first. The cause of India's pioneering status lies in its early recognition of population growth as a national concern, not simply the start date. Therefore, both statements are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Q81. Identify correct statements for STIs: (i) HIV, Hepatitis-B are STIs. (ii) Can be transmitted by sharing needles. (iii) Infected females are always symptomatic.
Correct Answer: (a)
HIV and Hepatitis‑B are indeed sexually transmitted, but they can also be transmitted through blood and sharing needles. Infected females often remain asymptomatic, making (iii) false. So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q82. Identify correct features of 'Amniocentesis': (i) Tests amniotic fluid. (ii) Detects Down Syndrome. (iii) Detects Sickle-cell anemia.
Correct Answer: (a)
Amniocentesis analyses fetal cells in the amniotic fluid to detect chromosomal abnormalities like Down syndrome and genetic disorders like sickle‑cell anaemia. All three features are correct.
Q83. Match the IUD types with their examples:
Column-I (Type)
Column-II (Example)
A. Non-medicated IUD
(I) LNG-20
B. Copper releasing IUD
(II) Lippes loop
C. Hormone releasing IUD
(III) Multiload 375
Correct Answer: (a)
Non‑medicated IUDs, such as the Lippes loop, do not release any active substance. Copper‑releasing IUDs, like Multiload 375 and CuT, are widely used for their spermicidal effect. Hormone‑releasing IUDs, such as LNG‑20 (levonorgestrel‑releasing), release hormones to alter the uterine environment. The correct match is A–II, B–III, C–I.
Q84. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Reproductive Health' according to WHO? (i) Total well-being in physical aspects only. (ii) Emotional well-being. (iii) Social and Behavioural well-being.
Correct Answer: (a)
WHO defines reproductive health as complete well‑being in physical, emotional, behavioural, and social aspects. Statement (i) is incorrect because it says 'only physical'. Therefore, the correct statements are (ii) and (iii).
Q85. Oral contraceptive pills for females must be taken daily for a period of ______ days.
Correct Answer: (c)
Combined oral contraceptive pills are typically taken once daily for 21 consecutive days, followed by a 7‑day pill‑free interval (or placebo pills) during which menstruation occurs. This 21‑day regimen maintains consistent hormone levels to suppress ovulation. Some formulations may have different schedules, but the standard is 21 active pills.
Q86. Assertion: GIFT is useful for females who cannot produce an ovum.
Reason: It provides a suitable environment for fertilisation in their own fallopian tube.
Correct Answer: (a)
GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) is indeed used when the female cannot produce viable ova; donor ova are placed in her fallopian tube along with sperm, allowing fertilisation to occur in her body. The procedure provides a natural environment for fertilisation. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the utility of GIFT.
Q87. Match the surgical procedure with the organ involved:
Column-I (Procedure)
Column-II (Organ)
A. Vasectomy
(I) Fallopian tube
B. Tubectomy
(II) Vas deferens
Correct Answer: (a)
Vasectomy involves cutting or tying the vas deferens in males. Tubectomy involves similar treatment of the fallopian tubes in females. Therefore, A–II and B–I is the correct match.
Q88. Assertion: Copper releasing IUDs are effective contraceptives.
Reason: Cu ions released suppress sperm motility.
Correct Answer: (a)
Copper‑releasing IUDs are highly effective because the copper ions they release are toxic to sperm, reducing their motility and capacity to fertilise. This direct mechanism explains why these IUDs work so well. Thus, both the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Q89. Assertion: STIs are a major threat to a healthy society.
Reason: They can lead to complications like Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases (PID) and infertility.
Correct Answer: (a)
STIs pose a significant threat because they can cause severe complications, including PID, infertility, ectopic pregnancies, and even cancer. These long‑term consequences justify the assertion that STIs are a major societal threat. The reason accurately explains why STIs are dangerous, making both statements true and correctly linked.
Q90. The 'test tube baby' programme refers to which technique?
Correct Answer: (c)
The term 'test tube baby' is popularly used for babies conceived through In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) followed by Embryo Transfer (ET). In this process, fertilisation occurs outside the body in a laboratory dish, and the resulting embryo is then transferred into the mother's uterus. This technique has helped many couples with infertility to have children.
Q91. The statutory ban on amniocentesis is primarily to legally check:
Correct Answer: (c)
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique that can detect chromosomal abnormalities, but it has been misused for sex determination. The misuse leads to female foeticide, which is a major social evil. To curb this practice, the government has imposed a statutory ban on amniocentesis for sex-determination purposes, promoting equal rights for the girl child.
Q92. Assertion: Use of condoms has increased in recent years.
Reason: They protect the user from contracting STIs and AIDS.
Correct Answer: (a)
Condom usage has indeed risen, largely because of the growing awareness of STIs and HIV/AIDS. The protective effect against infections is a major factor driving their adoption, even beyond pregnancy prevention. Therefore, the reason correctly explains the increased use of condoms.
Q93. Surgical methods of contraception are also called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Surgical methods, such as vasectomy and tubectomy, are permanent contraceptive procedures known as sterilisation. They involve blocking or cutting the reproductive ducts (vas deferens in males, fallopian tubes in females) to prevent gamete transport. These methods are advised as a terminal option for couples who do not wish to have more children.
Q94. India initiated the 'family planning' programmes in the year:
Correct Answer: (b)
India became the first country in the world to launch a national family planning programme. This historic step was taken in 1951 to address the growing population concerns and to promote reproductive health. The programme later evolved into more comprehensive Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programmes. It laid the foundation for population stabilisation efforts in the country.
Q95. Match the acronyms for Infertility treatment:
A. AI
Artificial Insemination
B. IUI
Intra-Uterine Insemination
C. ART
Assisted Reproductive Technologies
Correct Answer: (a)
AI stands for Artificial Insemination, IUI stands for Intra‑Uterine Insemination, and ART is the umbrella term for Assisted Reproductive Technologies including IVF, ZIFT, GIFT, etc. All three definitions are correct.
Q96. Regarding 'IVF', which statements are correct? (i) Fertilisation in a test tube. (ii) Followed by embryo transfer. (iii) Used for couples where the male cannot inseminate.
Correct Answer: (b)
IVF involves fertilising the egg outside the body in a laboratory dish, followed by embryo transfer. However, IVF is primarily used for female infertility (e.g., blocked fallopian tubes), not for male inability to inseminate (which is treated with AI). Thus, (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is false.
Q97. Match the MTP legality grounds (2017 Amendment):
Ground
Requirement
A. Up to 12 weeks
(I) Opinion of one doctor
B. 12 to 24 weeks
(II) Opinion of two doctors
Correct Answer: (a)
Under the MTP Act, termination up to 12 weeks requires the opinion of a single registered medical practitioner. For termination between 12 and 24 weeks, the opinion of two doctors is mandatory. This ensures appropriate medical and ethical oversight.
Q98. ZIFT stands for:
Correct Answer: (a)
ZIFT stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer. In this assisted reproductive technique, the zygote (fertilised egg) or early embryo (up to 8‑cell stage) is transferred into the fallopian tube, not the uterus. This allows the embryo to travel naturally to the uterus for implantation.
Q99. Which of the following is a 'Natural' method of contraception?
Correct Answer: (b)
Periodic abstinence is a natural method of contraception that involves avoiding sexual intercourse during the fertile period of the menstrual cycle. This method relies on the rhythm of the menstrual cycle and is based on the knowledge that ovulation occurs around day 14. While it is free of side effects, its effectiveness is low because it requires strict adherence and accurate prediction of the fertile window.
Q100. Which part is removed or tied up in a vasectomy?
Correct Answer: (c)
In vasectomy, a small section of the vas deferens (the duct that transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra) is cut and sealed. This blocks the passage of sperm, preventing fertilisation. The procedure does not affect hormone production or sexual function, and sperm are still produced but are reabsorbed by the body.