Q1. Health is a state of complete ______ well-being.
Correct Answer: (d)
Health could be defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being.
Q2. The 'good humor' hypothesis of health was disproved by the discovery of blood circulation by:
Correct Answer: (b)
The discovery of blood circulation by William Harvey and the use of thermometer disproved the 'good humor' hypothesis.
Q3. The toxic substance responsible for the chill and high fever recurring in malaria is:
Correct Answer: (b)
The rupture of RBCs is associated with the release of a toxic substance, haemozoin.
Q4. Regarding 'Antibody structure': (i) Represented as H2L2. (ii) Contains antigen-binding sites. (iii) Light and heavy chains are connected by disulphide bonds.
Correct Answer: (a)
Molecular detail based on Figure 7.4.
Q5. Assertion: Acquired immune response is pathogen specific.
Reason: It is present at the time of birth.
Correct Answer: (a)
Acquired immunity is learned/specific; Innate immunity is present at birth.
Q6. MALT constitutes about ______ per cent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
Correct Answer: (c)
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) constitutes about 50 per cent of the lymphoid tissue.
Q7. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Health' according to the provided text? (i) Early Greeks like Hippocrates asserted that health was a balance of humors. (ii) Indian Ayurveda system also supported the humor hypothesis. (iii) William Harvey disproved the 'good humor' hypothesis using thermometers.
Correct Answer: (a)
The historical transition from reflective thought to experimental evidence in health is detailed in section 7.0.
Q8. Match the transmission mode with the pathogen:
A. Houseflies
(I) Entamoeba histolytica (Amoebiasis)
B. Female Anopheles
(II) Plasmodium (Malaria)
C. Female Culex (implied)
(III) Wuchereria (Elephantiasis)
Correct Answer: (a)
Vectors and the pathogens they carry.
Q9. Heroin is chemically known as:
Correct Answer: (a)
Heroin, commonly called smack, is chemically diacetylmorphine.
Q10. Assertion: AIDS causes the person to become immuno-deficient.
Reason: There is a progressive decrease in the number of helper T-lymphocytes (TH).
Correct Answer: (a)
The depletion of TH cells destroys the body's ability to coordinate an immune response.
Q11. Match the following treatment terms:
Term
Treatment Context
A. Immunotherapy
(I) Use of biological response modifiers (interferon)
B. Radiotherapy
(II) Lethal irradiation of tumor cells
C. Surgery
(III) Physical removal of tumor mass
Correct Answer: (a)
Approaches for cancer treatment listed on page 142.
Q12. Which are correct for 'Acquired Immunity'? (i) Pathogen specific. (ii) Characterized by memory. (iii) Uses B and T lymphocytes.
Correct Answer: (a)
The learned immune system is specific and durable.
Q13. Assertion: Tobacco chewing is associated with increased risk of oral cancer.
Reason: Tobacco contains nicotine which stimulates the adrenal gland.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true facts, but the stimulation of the adrenal gland (which affects heart rate) is not the cause of oral cancer.
Q14. Assertion: Benign tumors are not cancerous.
Reason: They remain confined to their original location and do not spread.
Correct Answer: (a)
Non-invasive nature defines a benign tumor, distinguishing it from malignant (cancerous) growth.
Q15. Match the following for allergy treatment:
A. Anti-histamine
Reduction of symptoms
B. Adrenalin
Reduction of symptoms
C. Steroids
Reduction of symptoms
Correct Answer: (a)
Drugs used to manage allergic reactions (page 137).
Q16. Assertion: Dependence leads the patient to ignore all social norms.
Reason: The patient needs funds to satiate his/her drug needs.
Correct Answer: (a)
The compulsion to acquire drugs causes social adjustment problems and deviant behavior.
Q17. Assertion: Malarial parasite requires two hosts to complete its life cycle.
Reason: Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector for malaria.
Correct Answer: (a)
Plasmodium requires human and mosquito hosts, and the mosquito transfers the parasite between humans.
Q18. The diagnostic test used to confirm typhoid fever is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Typhoid fever could be confirmed by the Widal test.
Q19. Assertion: Acquired immunity is characterized by memory.
Reason: A second encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified anamnestic response.
Correct Answer: (a)
Memory allows the immune system to recognize and fight a repeat invader much more vigorously.
Q20. Assertion: Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant tumors.
Reason: Proliferating cells sloughed from tumors reach distant sites and start new tumors.
Correct Answer: (a)
Metastasis involves the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body via blood.
Q21. Which statements about 'Cancer' are correct? (i) Cancer cells lose the property of contact inhibition. (ii) Malignant tumors reach distant sites via blood (metastasis). (iii) Ionising radiations like X-rays can cause DNA damage leading to cancer. (iv) Normal cells lack proto-oncogenes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iv) is incorrect; normal cells do have proto-oncogenes which can be activated.
Q22. Which organism causes amoebic dysentery?
Correct Answer: (a)
Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite that causes amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery).
Q23. Each antibody molecule has how many peptide chains?
Correct Answer: (c)
Each antibody molecule has four peptide chains, two small (light) and two longer (heavy) chains (H2L2).
Q24. Which drug is obtained from the plant Cannabis sativa?
Correct Answer: (c)
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the inflorescences of the plant Cannabis sativa.
Q25. Assertion: Vaccination generates memory B and T-cells.
Reason: Vaccines contain preformed antibodies to neutralize toxins.
Correct Answer: (a)
Reason is describing passive immunization; vaccines usually contain antigens to stimulate the body's own memory cells.
Q26. AIDS was first reported in the year:
Correct Answer: (c)
AIDS was first reported in 1981.
Q27. Which of the following are symptoms of 'Amoebic dysentery'? (i) Constipation and abdominal pain. (ii) Stools with excess mucous. (iii) Blood clots in stools.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.1 describes these symptoms for Entamoeba infection.
Q28. Which of the following are correctly described as 'Secondary Lymphoid Organs'? (i) Spleen. (ii) Lymph nodes. (iii) Peyer’s patches of small intestine. (iv) Appendix.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.2.7 lists all these as sites where lymphocytes mature and interact with antigens.
Q29. The classic case in medicine of a professional cook who was a typhoid carrier is:
Correct Answer: (a)
Mary Mallon, nicknamed Typhoid Mary, was a cook and a typhoid carrier who spread the disease for years through food.
Q30. Match the pathogen with the disease it causes:
Column-I (Pathogen)
Column-II (Disease)
A. Salmonella typhi
(I) Pneumonia
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
(II) Malaria
C. Plasmodium falciparum
(III) Typhoid
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
(IV) Elephantiasis
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard pathogen-disease matches as per section 7.1.
Q31. Assertion: Smokers have oxygen deficiency in the body.
Reason: Smoking increases carbon monoxide (CO) content in the blood which reduces the concentration of haembound oxygen.
Correct Answer: (a)
CO binds with hemoglobin more strongly than O2, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
Q32. Match the following for plant groups:
Scientist
Green Revolution
A. M.S. Swaminathan
Introduction of Mexican wheat
Correct Answer: (a)
Unit VIII introduction biography of Swaminathan.
Q33. Assertion: B-lymphocytes produce an army of proteins called antibodies.
Reason: T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but help B cells to produce them.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are correct facts about lymphocyte roles, but T-cell help is a separate mechanism from the fact that B-cells make proteins.
Q34. Match the following for helminths:
Common name
Scientific name
A. Round worm
Ascaris
B. Filarial worm
Wuchereria
Correct Answer: (a)
Nomenclature from section 7.1.
Q35. Identify the correct phylum/group being described: (i) They produce an army of proteins in response to pathogens. (ii) They are found in the blood. (iii) The response is called humoral immune response.
Correct Answer: (a)
B-cells produce antibodies responsible for humoral immunity.
Q36. Match the following for Secondary Metabolites (Table 9.3):
A. Terpenoides
Monoterpenes
B. Lectins
Concanavalin A
C. Polymeric substances
Rubber, Gums
Correct Answer: (a)
Specific examples from the Unit VIII introductory table.
Q37. Identify the correct principles for STI prevention: (i) Avoid sex with unknown partners. (ii) Always use condoms during coitus. (iii) Seek early detection and treatment.
Correct Answer: (a)
These simple principles are listed at the end of section 7.4.
Q38. Assertion: Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defense.
Reason: It consists of various barriers that prevent the entry of foreign agents into the body.
Correct Answer: (a)
Innate immunity provides general protection through physical and chemical barriers from birth.
Q39. Which are correct for 'Withdrawal Syndrome'? (i) Occurs when drug dose is abruptly discontinued. (ii) Characterised by anxiety, shakiness, and sweating. (iii) It can be relieved when use is resumed.
Correct Answer: (a)
The clinical picture of dependency-related withdrawal (section 7.5.2).
Q40. Regarding the AIDS virus (HIV), select the correct statements: (i) It is a member of the retrovirus group. (ii) It has an envelope enclosing the RNA genome. (iii) It is spread by mere touch or shaking hands. (iv) There is a time-lag between infection and symptoms (usually 5-10 years).
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; AIDS does not spread by touch.
Q41. Match the following lymphoid organs:
Column-I (Organ)
Column-II (Type)
A. Bone Marrow
(I) Secondary Lymphoid
B. Thymus
(II) Primary Lymphoid
C. Spleen
(III) Primary Lymphoid
D. Lymph nodes
(IV) Secondary Lymphoid
Correct Answer: (a)
Primary vs Secondary lymphoid organs (section 7.2.7).
Q42. Match the drug effects:
Drug
Effect
A. Cocaine
(I) Potent stimulating action/Euphoria
B. Heroin
(II) Depressant/Slows body functions
C. Morphine
(III) Sedative/Painkiller
Correct Answer: (a)
Physiological effects of drugs from section 7.5.
Q43. Match the antibody with its role/context:
Antibody
Feature
A. IgA
(I) Secreted from mast cells (Allergy)
B. IgE
(II) Abundant in Colostrum
Correct Answer: (a)
IgA is in milk/colostrum; IgE is for allergic responses.
Q44. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of:
Correct Answer: (c)
Rheumatoid arthritis is an auto-immune disease where the body attacks self-cells.
Q45. Regarding 'Drug Abuse', which statements are true? (i) Opioids bind to specific receptors in the CNS and GI tract. (ii) Cannabinoids are known for their effects on the cardiovascular system. (iii) Cocaine interferes with the transport of dopamine.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.5 details the mechanisms and effects of these abused drugs.
Q46. Assertion: Heroin is a depressant.
Reason: It speeds up body functions.
Correct Answer: (a)
Heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions.
Q47. Match the following for HIV structure:
Component
Nature
A. HIV Genome
RNA
B. Family
Retrovirus
Correct Answer: (a)
HIV is an RNA-containing retrovirus.
Q48. Match the symptom with the disease:
Disease
Major Symptom
A. Ascariasis
(I) Internal bleeding and muscular pain
B. Amoebiasis
(II) Stools with excess mucous and blood clots
C. Pneumonia
(III) Alveoli filled with fluid
D. Malaria
(IV) Recurring high fever and chill
Correct Answer: (a)
Diagnostic symptoms for common diseases.
Q49. In pneumonia, the infection occurs specifically in the ______ of the lungs.
Correct Answer: (c)
Pneumonia infects the alveoli (air-filled sacs) of the lungs, which get filled with fluid.
Q50. Identify correct facts about 'Tobacco': (i) Used for more than 400 years. (ii) Contains nicotine which raises blood pressure. (iii) Smoking is associated with urinary bladder cancer.
Correct Answer: (a)
The long history and health risks of tobacco are detailed on page 144.
Q51. Elephantiasis or Filariasis is caused by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Wuchereria (W. bancrofti and W. malayi), the filarial worms, cause elephantiasis.
Q52. Match the abbreviation with its full form:
A. PMNL
(I) Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue
B. MALT
(II) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
C. ELISA
(III) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes
D. NACO
(IV) National AIDS Control Organisation
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard biological and health abbreviations used in the text.
Q53. Select correct statements for 'Prevention and Control' of drug abuse: (i) Avoid undue peer pressure. (ii) Education and counselling. (iii) Seeking help from parents and peers. (iv) Looking for danger signs.
Correct Answer: (a)
The list of measures for prevention is found on pages 146-147.
Q54. Identify correct features of 'Active Immunity': (i) It is slow and takes time to give a full response. (ii) Antibodies are produced in the host body. (iii) Exposure to antigens is required.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.2.3 describes the nature of active immunity.
Q55. Which of the following correctly describes 'Adolescence and Drug Abuse'? (i) Adolescence is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood (12-18 years). (ii) Curiosity and stress are common causes for drug use. (iii) Perception of being 'cool' motivates youngsters to smoke.
Correct Answer: (a)
Social and psychological drivers for drug abuse are discussed in section 7.5.1.
Q56. Regarding 'HIV Replication': (i) Viral RNA enters macrophages. (ii) Reverse transcriptase forms viral DNA. (iii) Viral DNA incorporates into the host genome.
Correct Answer: (a)
The molecular mechanism of retroviral infection as shown in Figure 7.6.
Q57. Match the addiction syndrome:
A. Dependence
(I) Characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal syndrome
B. Tolerance
(II) Receptors respond only to higher doses
Correct Answer: (a)
Addiction related terminology from section 7.5.2.
Q58. Which bacterium is responsible for causing typhoid fever in humans?
Correct Answer: (b)
Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human beings.
Q59. Match the following for AIDS prevention:
A. NACO
National Level
B. NGO
Non-governmental level
C. WHO
International level
Correct Answer: (a)
Organisational efforts described in section 7.3.
Q60. Regarding 'Ringworm' infection: (i) Dry, scaly lesions on skin/nails/scalp. (ii) Accompanied by intense itching. (iii) Thrives in skin folds like groin or between toes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Fungal pathology description on page 133.
Q61. Which of the following is correct? (i) Biology is the youngest of formalised disciplines. (ii) Discovery of antibiotics changed medical practice. (iii) M.S. Swaminathan is known for the Green Revolution.
Correct Answer: (a)
Points from the Unit VIII introductory section.
Q62. Which are correct for 'Primary Lymphoid Organs'? (i) Bone marrow and Thymus. (ii) where immature lymphocytes differentiate. (iii) where lymphocytes migrate after maturation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Primary organs are for differentiation; migration occurs to secondary organs.
Q63. Assertion: A healthy person can still have a disease.
Reason: Health is only defined as the absence of disease.
Correct Answer: (d)
Health is NOT just the absence of disease; it is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
Q64. Match the following for Malaria parasites:
A. Multiplication site 1
Liver cells
B. Multiplication site 2
Red blood cells
C. Storage site in mosquito
Salivary glands
Correct Answer: (a)
Stages of Plasmodium life cycle (section 7.1).
Q65. Which of the following phylum/group is being described? (i) These are agents that cause transformation of normal cells into cancerous cells. (ii) Can be physical, chemical or biological. (iii) Examples include UV radiation and tobacco smoke.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.4 defines these cancer-causing agents.
Q66. Assertion: Many people suffer from allergies in metro cities.
Reason: This is due to the sensitive nature of metro city residents.
Correct Answer: (a)
Metropolitan residents suffer more from allergies due to modern lifestyles and high sensitivity to the polluted environment.
Q67. Assertion: Cadaveric grafts for organ transplantation can be taken from anybody.
Reason: The body is able to differentiate 'self' and 'nonself'.
Correct Answer: (a)
Assertion is false; organs cannot be taken from anyone because the body's immune system will reject 'nonself' tissue.
Q68. The property of 'memory' of the immune system is the basis of:
Correct Answer: (b)
The principle of immunisation or vaccination is based on the property of ‘memory’ of the immune system.
Q69. The common cold is caused by which group of viruses?
Correct Answer: (b)
Rhino viruses cause one of the most infectious human ailments – the common cold.
Q70. Match the cancer detection technique with its description:
Column-I (Technique)
Column-II (Description)
A. Biopsy
(I) Uses X-rays to see internal organs
B. Computed Tomography
(II) Staining and examining tissue sections
C. MRI
(III) Uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiation
Correct Answer: (a)
Descriptions provided in section 7.4.
Q71. Match the cancer type with the cell source:
Term
Description
A. Carcinogens
Agents causing cancer
B. Oncogenic viruses
Viruses causing cancer
C. Proto-oncogenes
Normal genes that could become oncogenic
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions of oncogenic agents and genes from section 7.4.
Q72. The property by which normal cells inhibit the uncontrolled growth of other cells is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Normal cells show a property called contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth.
Q73. The yellowish fluid colostrum contains which type of antibodies?
Correct Answer: (c)
Colostrum secreted by the mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant IgA antibodies.
Q74. Correct statements for 'Malaria prevention' include: (i) Use of mosquito nets. (ii) Introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds. (iii) Spraying insecticides in ditches and swamps.
Correct Answer: (a)
Public health measures to control vector breeding sites.
Q75. Regarding 'Immunity', identify the correct statements: (i) B-lymphocytes produce antibodies into the blood. (ii) T-lymphocytes mediate cell-mediated immunity (CMI). (iii) Humoral immune response is antibody-mediated.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard definitions of humoral and cell-mediated immunity.
Q76. Assertion: An Rh-ve person should be matched before blood transfusion.
Reason: If exposed to Rh+ve blood, they will form specific antibodies against Rh antigens.
Correct Answer: (a)
Incompatibility triggers antibody formation, which can cause clumping in future exposures.
Q77. Assertion: Alpha-interferon is given to cancer patients.
Reason: It activates the immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.
Correct Answer: (a)
Interferons are biological response modifiers that help the body fight the cancer.
Q78. Match the following for Human Physiology (Unit 5 intro):
Scientist
Discovery
A. Alfonso Corti
Organ of Corti
Correct Answer: (a)
Introductory text for Unit 5 mentioned in the PDF.
Q79. Identify true statements for 'Innate Immunity' barriers: (i) Tears and saliva contain antimicrobial substances. (ii) Mucus coating traps microbes in respiratory tract. (iii) PMNL stands for polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard innate defense features from section 7.2.1.
Q80. Match the following for secondary metabolites:
Category
Example
A. Alkaloids
(I) Morphine, Codeine
B. Toxins
(II) Abrin, Ricin
C. Drugs
(III) Vinblastin, Curcumin
Correct Answer: (a)
Table 9.3 data provided in the Unit introduction (Page 5).
Q81. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like ______ and ______ from mast cells.
Correct Answer: (b)
Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast cells.
Q82. Match the following for common symptoms:
Pathogen
Transmission
A. Common cold
Droplets/Sneeze
B. Pneumonia
Droplets/Aerosols
Correct Answer: (a)
Aerosol/droplet transmission for respiratory diseases.
Q83. Match the drug with its plant source:
Column-I (Drug)
Column-II (Source)
A. Opioids (Morphine)
(I) Cannabis sativa
B. Cannabinoids
(II) Papaver somniferum
C. Cocaine
(III) Erythroxylum coca
Correct Answer: (a)
Natural sources of common abused drugs (section 7.5).
Q84. Interferons are proteins secreted by ______ to protect non-infected cells.
Correct Answer: (b)
Virus-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further viral infection.
Q85. Which fungi are responsible for ringworm infections?
Correct Answer: (d)
Fungi belonging to the genera Microsporum, Trichophyton, and Epidermophyton are responsible for ringworms.
Q86. Which type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is non-specific?
Correct Answer: (c)
Innate immunity is a non-specific type of defence that is present at the time of birth.
Q87. Assertion: Normal cells lost the property of contact inhibition in cancer.
Reason: Cancerous cells continue to divide giving rise to masses called tumors.
Correct Answer: (a)
The loss of growth control (contact inhibition) leads directly to the formation of tumor masses.
Q88. Match the Following for antibody chains:
Chain type
Count
A. Heavy chains
2
B. Light chains
2
Correct Answer: (a)
An antibody molecule has 4 chains: 2 heavy and 2 light.
Q89. Identify the correct statements regarding Typhoid fever: (i) Caused by Salmonella typhi. (ii) Pathogens enter the small intestine through contaminated food. (iii) Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C) is a symptom. (iv) Intestinal perforation may occur in severe cases.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 7.1 provides a full description of Typhoid pathology.
Q90. Malignant malaria, the most serious form of malaria, is caused by:
Correct Answer: (c)
Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal.
Q91. Assertion: Morphine is useful for patients who have undergone surgery.
Reason: It is a very effective sedative and painkiller.
Correct Answer: (a)
Morphine is used clinically as a strong painkiller in post-surgical recovery.
Q92. Assertion: Peyer’s patches are secondary lymphoid organs.
Reason: Origin of lymphocytes occurs in Peyer's patches.
Correct Answer: (a)
Secondary lymphoid organs are where lymphocytes mature and interact with antigens; they originate in the bone marrow (Primary).
Q93. Assertion: Addiction is a psychological attachment to certain effects like euphoria.
Reason: Repeated use of drugs increases the tolerance level of receptors.
Correct Answer: (a)
Addiction is the psychological pull; the reason describes the physiological basis for increasing doses, but doesn't define the 'attachment' itself.
Q94. Assertion: HIV/AIDS is not spread by mere touch or physical contact.
Reason: It spreads only through body fluids.
Correct Answer: (a)
The text explicitly states AIDS is not spread by touch; body fluid exchange is required.
Q95. The infectious form of Plasmodium that enters the human body through a mosquito bite is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Plasmodium enters the human body as sporozoites through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito.
Q96. Assertion: Cannabinoids are known for their effects on the respiratory system.
Reason: They are taken by inhalation and oral ingestion.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cannabinoids are known for their effects on the cardiovascular system of the body.
Q97. Match the type of barrier in innate immunity:
Column-I (Barrier)
Column-II (Example)
A. Physical barrier
(I) Acid in stomach
B. Physiological barrier
(II) Interferons
C. Cellular barrier
(III) Skin
D. Cytokine barrier
(IV) PMNL-neutrophils
Correct Answer: (a)
Classification of innate immune barriers (section 7.2.1).
Q98. Assertion: People who take drugs intravenously are at high risk of AIDS.
Reason: HIV can be transferred by sharing infected needles and syringes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Intravenous drug use often involves needle sharing, providing a direct route for virus transmission.
Q99. Regarding the life cycle of Plasmodium, which statements are true? (i) It requires two hosts: human and mosquitoes. (ii) Parasites multiply initially within the liver cells. (iii) The sexual stages (gametocytes) develop in the mosquito's gut.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is incorrect; gametocytes develop in human red blood cells (though fertilization occurs in the mosquito gut).
Q100. Match the cellular barrier with the cell type:
A. Phagocytic WBC
Neutrophils
B. Phagocytic WBC
Monocytes
C. Lymphocyte type
Natural Killer
Correct Answer: (a)
Cells of the innate cellular barrier (section 7.2.1).
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