Q2. Assertion: Glomerulonephritis is inflammation of the kidneys.
Reason: It specifically involves the inflammation of renal calyces.
Correct Answer: (a)
Glomerulonephritis is the inflammation of glomeruli, not calyces.
Q3. Match the animal group with its excretory product:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Bony fish
(I) Urea
B. Mammals
(II) Uric acid
C. Birds
(III) Ammonia
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard classification of nitrogenous wastes.
Q4. Assertion: Cortical nephrons lack or have a highly reduced vasa recta.
Reason: Their loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the medulla.
Correct Answer: (a)
Vasa recta follows the loop; if the loop is short/absent in the medulla, the vasa recta is reduced.
Q5. Identify correct facts for 'Vasa Recta': (i) 'U' shaped. (ii) Parallel to Henle’s loop. (iii) Absent or highly reduced in cortical nephrons.
Correct Answer: (a)
Structural details of vasa recta.
Q6. On average, how many grams of urea are excreted per day by an adult human?
Correct Answer: (b)
An adult human excretes 25-30 gm of urea per day on average.
Q7. In ureotelic animals, ammonia is converted into urea in the:
Correct Answer: (b)
Ammonia produced by metabolism is converted into urea in the liver of ureotelic animals.
Q8. Which of the following is correct? (i) ADH is also called vasopressin. (ii) ADH can cause an increase in blood pressure. (iii) ADH suppresses GFR.
Correct Answer: (a)
ADH constricts blood vessels, which increases GFR, not suppresses it.
Q9. Match the micturition components:
Component
Function
A. Stretch receptors
(I) Signal to CNS
B. Smooth muscles
(II) Contraction of bladder wall
C. Urethral sphincter
(III) Simultaneous relaxation
Correct Answer: (a)
Physiology of micturition.
Q10. Match the transport mechanism in PCT:
Substance
Direction
A. Nutrients
(I) Reabsorbed into blood
B. Hydrogen ions
(II) Secreted into filtrate
Correct Answer: (a)
Bidirectional transport in the PCT segment.
Q11. Match hormone source:
Hormone
Source
A. Renin
(I) Kidney (JG cells)
B. ANF
(II) Heart (Atria)
C. ADH
(III) Hypothalamus/Neurohypophysis
Correct Answer: (a)
Endocrine sources for renal regulation.
Q12. Match the nephron parts with their locations/features:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Malpighian corpuscle
(I) Brush border epithelium
B. PCT
(II) Hairpin shape
C. Henle’s loop
(III) Found only in cortex
Correct Answer: (a)
Structural characteristics of nephron segments.
Q13. Assertion: ANF acts as a check on Renin-Angiotensin mechanism.
Reason: ANF causes vasodilation and decreases blood pressure.
Correct Answer: (a)
ANF counters the blood-pressure-increasing effects of the RAAS system.
Q14. Match the diffusion membrane layers:
Layer
Location
A. Endothelium
(I) Glomerular blood vessels
B. Epithelium
(II) Bowman's capsule
C. Basement membrane
(III) In between the two layers
Correct Answer: (a)
Barriers in ultra filtration.
Q15. Assertion: Micturition is carried out by a reflex.
Reason: Stretching of the bladder wall initiates a signal to the CNS.
Correct Answer: (a)
The stretch receptors initiate the neural mechanism known as the micturition reflex.
Q16. Match the blood vessel role:
Vessel
Role
A. Afferent arteriole
(I) Brings blood to glomerulus
B. Efferent arteriole
(II) Carries blood away from glomerulus
Correct Answer: (a)
Vascular supply of the nephron unit.
Q17. The human kidneys are situated between the levels of:
Correct Answer: (b)
Kidneys are located between the last thoracic (T12) and third lumbar (L3) vertebrae.
Q18. What percentage of the filtrate is reabsorbed by the renal tubules?
Correct Answer: (d)
Nearly 99 per cent of the filtrate has to be reabsorbed.
Q19. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the:
Correct Answer: (b)
Glomerulus is formed by the afferent arteriole, a fine branch of the renal artery.
Q20. Protonephridia (flame cells) are the excretory structures in:
Correct Answer: (c)
Protonephridia or flame cells are found in flatworms like Planaria.
Q21. Match the volumes/rates:
Variable
Value
A. GFR
(I) 180 Litres/day
B. Average urine output
(II) 1 - 1.5 Litres/day
C. Urea excreted
(III) 25 - 30 gm/day
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard clinical values from the text.
Q22. Which statements about 'JGA' are correct? (i) Special sensitive region in the nephron. (ii) Formed by modifications in DCT and afferent arteriole. (iii) Release of renin stimulates GFR back to normal.
Correct Answer: (a)
The JGA is the primary autoregulatory structure of the kidney.
Q23. Assertion: Blood is filtered so finely that it is considered a process of ultra filtration.
Reason: Almost all constituents of plasma except proteins pass into the lumen of Bowman's capsule.
Correct Answer: (a)
The fine filtration process excluding proteins defines ultra filtration.
Q24. The average Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in a healthy individual is:
Correct Answer: (b)
GFR is approximately 125 ml/minute, which is 180 litres per day.
Q25. Renin is released by which cells in response to a fall in GFR?
Correct Answer: (b)
A fall in GFR activates Juxta Glomerular (JG) cells to release renin.
Q26. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in:
Correct Answer: (c)
Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water occurs in the Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT).
Q27. Assertion: Henle’s loop plays a significant role in maintaining high osmolarity of medullary interstitial fluid.
Reason: The ascending limb of Henle is permeable to water.
Correct Answer: (c)
The ascending limb is impermeable to water.
Q28. Identify correct features of 'Medullary osmolarity': (i) 300 mOsmolL-1 in cortex. (ii) 1200 mOsmolL-1 in inner medulla. (iii) Gradient helps in water passage from collecting tubule.
Correct Answer: (a)
The gradient is essential for the concentration of urine.
Q29. Match the dialysis components:
Component
Role
A. Cellophane tube
(I) Porous membrane
B. Dialysing fluid
(II) No nitrogenous wastes
C. Heparin
(III) Anticoagulant
Correct Answer: (a)
Principles of hemodialysis.
Q30. Identify the correct phylum/animal based on the following statements? (i) They are ammonotelic. (ii) They excrete ammonia through diffusion across body surfaces. (iii) Examples include bony fishes and aquatic amphibians.
Correct Answer: (c)
Ammonotelic animals use water-rich environments to flush toxic ammonia.
Q31. The process of release of urine is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Micturition is the process of releasing urine from the urinary bladder.
Q32. In which type of nephron is the loop of Henle very long and runs deep into the medulla?
Correct Answer: (b)
Juxta medullary nephrons have a very long loop of Henle running deep into the medulla.
Q33. Which is the most toxic form of nitrogenous waste?
Correct Answer: (c)
Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires large amounts of water for its elimination.
Q34. Assertion: Presence of glucose in urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus.
Reason: This condition is known as Glycosuria.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the definition 'Glycosuria' is not the functional reason why it indicates diabetes (that relates to blood sugar levels).
Q35. Identify correct statements for 'PCT function': (i) Reabsorbs 70-80% of electrolytes and water. (ii) Secretes H+, K+, and Ammonia into filtrate. (iii) Reabsorbs nearly all essential nutrients.
Correct Answer: (a)
PCT is the primary site for volume reduction and nutrient salvage.
Q36. Assertion: Sweat helps in excretion.
Reason: It removes small amounts of urea and lactic acid.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sweat contains metabolic wastes, facilitating their removal from the body.
Q37. Assertion: DCT is capable of reabsorption of HCO3-.
Reason: It helps in maintaining the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bicarbonate reabsorption and ion secretion are the mechanisms for pH and ionic regulation.
Q38. Assertion: The pH of human urine is slightly acidic (pH 6.0).
Reason: Tubular secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate occurs.
Correct Answer: (a)
Active secretion of H+ ions into the filtrate makes the resulting urine acidic.
Q39. Which statements about 'Angiotensin II' are correct? (i) powerful vasoconstrictor. (ii) Activates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. (iii) increases glomerular blood pressure.
Correct Answer: (a)
Angiotensin II is the central effector of the RAAS pathway.
Q40. Which of the following is correct? (i) Nephrons are the functional units of kidney. (ii) Each kidney has nearly 1 million nephrons. (iii) Medulla is divided into medullary pyramids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Basic anatomical summary of the human kidney.
Q41. Malpighian body (renal corpuscle) consists of:
Correct Answer: (b)
Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the Malpighian body.
Q42. Match the ionic concentrations (mOsmolL-1):
Location
Concentration
A. Cortex
(I) 300
B. Inner medulla
(II) 1200
Correct Answer: (a)
The medullary gradient as described on page 211.
Q43. Assertion: Angiotensin II is a powerful vasoconstrictor.
Reason: It increases glomerular blood pressure and GFR.
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomy of the counter current mechanism.
Q49. Match the osmoregulation solutes:
A. Solute 1
NaCl
B. Solute 2
Urea
Correct Answer: (a)
NaCl and Urea maintain the medullary gradient.
Q50. Assertion: Podocytes are epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule.
Reason: They are arranged to leave minute spaces called filtration slits.
Correct Answer: (a)
Structural arrangement of podocytes creates the sieve for ultra filtration.
Q51. The accumulation of urea in blood due to kidney malfunction is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Uremia is a condition where urea accumulates in the blood, which can lead to kidney failure.
Q52. Assertion: Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
Reason: Filtrate becomes more concentrated as it moves down the descending limb.
Correct Answer: (a)
Water loss from the tubule into the concentrated medullary fluid concentrates the filtrate.
Q53. Assertion: Uric acid is excreted in the form of pellet or paste.
Reason: This is a terrestrial adaptation for water conservation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Terrestrial animals conserve water by excreting less toxic, insoluble waste.
Q54. Regarding 'Kidney Transplantation', identify the correct statements: (i) Ultimate method to correct acute renal failure. (ii) Preferred donor is a close relative. (iii) Host immune system must not reject the kidney.
Correct Answer: (a)
Matching and immune suppression are vital for transplant success.
Q55. Which statements regarding 'Hemodialysis' are true? (i) Dialysing fluid has no nitrogenous wastes. (ii) Cellophane tube is porous. (iii) Blood is returned via an artery.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cleared blood is returned to the body through a vein, not an artery.
Q56. Select the correct statements about the 'Collecting Duct': (i) Allows passage of small amounts of urea into medullary interstitium. (ii) Reabsorbs large amounts of water to produce concentrated urine. (iii) Secretes H+ and K+ ions to maintain pH.
Correct Answer: (a)
Collecting ducts are final tuning segments for water and pH balance.
Q57. Which hormone is released from the neurohypophysis to prevent diuresis?
Correct Answer: (d)
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) facilitates water reabsorption to prevent excessive water loss.
Q58. Match the kidney structures with their descriptions:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Calyces
(I) Cortical extensions into medulla
B. Renal pelvis
(II) Conical medullary masses
C. Medullary pyramids
(III) Projections from the pelvis
D. Columns of Bertini
(IV) Funnel shaped space inner to hilum
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomical features of the human kidney.
Q59. Identify the correct statements for 'Micturition': (i) Bladder wall smooth muscles contract. (ii) Urethral sphincter relaxes. (iii) It is initiated by voluntary signals from the CNS.
Correct Answer: (a)
The reflex involves coordinated contraction and relaxation.
Q60. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Other Excretory Organs'? (i) Liver secretes bile containing bilirubin. (ii) Sebaceous glands eliminate sterols and waxes. (iii) Lungs remove 200 ml of CO2 per hour.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lungs remove 200 ml of CO2 per minute, not per hour.
Q61. Assertion: Columns of Bertini are medullary pyramids.
Reason: Cortex extends in between the medullary pyramids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Columns of Bertini are cortical extensions, not pyramids.
Q62. Match the specialized tissue:
Tissue Name
Location
A. JGA
(I) Modification in DCT and Afferent arteriole
B. Podocytes
(II) Inner wall of Bowman's capsule
Correct Answer: (a)
Specialized cellular regions in the nephron.
Q63. Match the organism with its excretory structure:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Planaria
(I) Malpighian tubules
B. Earthworm
(II) Antennal glands
C. Cockroach
(III) Flame cells
D. Prawn
(IV) Nephridia
Correct Answer: (a)
As per section 16.0 overview.
Q64. Which are correct for 'Filtrate reabsorption'? (i) 180 L filtrate/day vs 1.5 L urine/day. (ii) Glucose reabsorbed actively. (iii) Nitrogenous wastes reabsorbed passively.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard reabsorption figures and mechanisms.
Q65. Match the substances with reabsorption mode:
Substance
Mode
A. Glucose
(I) Active
B. Amino acids
(II) Active
C. Urea
(III) Passive
Correct Answer: (a)
Transport mechanisms in renal tubules.
Q66. Which of the following is correct for 'DCT reabsorption'? (i) It is conditional. (ii) Involves Na+ and water. (iii) Capable of reabsorbing bicarbonate.
Correct Answer: (a)
DCT reabsorption is regulated by hormones to maintain homeostasis.
Q67. Match the permeability in Henle’s loop:
Limb
Permeability
A. Descending limb
(I) Impermeable to water, Permeable to salts
B. Ascending limb
(II) Permeable to water, Impermeable to salts
Correct Answer: (a)
Basis for the counter current concentration mechanism.
Q68. Which nitrogenous waste can be removed with a minimum loss of water?
Correct Answer: (c)
Uric acid is the least toxic and can be removed as a pellet or paste with minimum water loss.
Q69. Which of the following are correct regarding ADH? (i) Released when osmoreceptors are activated by excessive fluid loss. (ii) Prevents diuresis. (iii) It is a vasodilator.
Correct Answer: (a)
ADH is a vasoconstrictor, not a vasodilator.
Q70. Match the disorders with their descriptions:
Disorder
Description
A. Uremia
(I) Crystallized salt masses
B. Renal calculi
(II) Inflammation of glomeruli
C. Glomerulonephritis
(III) Accumulation of urea in blood
Correct Answer: (a)
Clinical disorders section.
Q71. The excretory organs in prawns are:
Correct Answer: (c)
Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory function in crustaceans like prawns.
Q72. The 'U' shaped capillary vessel running parallel to the Henle’s loop is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Vasa recta is the U-shaped vessel running parallel to Henle's loop.
Q73. Which factor acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism by causing vasodilation?
Correct Answer: (c)
ANF is released from the atria of the heart to decrease blood pressure.
Q74. Assertion: In hemodialysis, an anticoagulant like heparin is added.
Reason: It prevents blood from clotting inside the dialyser unit.
Correct Answer: (a)
Anticoagulants are necessary for extracorporeal blood circuits.
Q75. The notch through which ureters, blood vessels, and nerves enter the kidney is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Hilum is the notch on the inner concave surface of the kidney.
Q76. Assertion: The renal cortex is characterized by medullary pyramids.
Reason: Medullary pyramids project into the calyces.
Correct Answer: (d)
The medulla, not the cortex, is divided into medullary pyramids.
Q77. Match the RAAS components:
Molecule
Action/Nature
A. Renin
(I) Powerful vasoconstrictor
B. Angiotensin II
(II) Stimulates Na+ reabsorption
C. Aldosterone
(III) Converts angiotensinogen
Correct Answer: (a)
Mechanisms of the renin-angiotensin system.
Q78. The segment of the nephron lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium is:
Correct Answer: (b)
PCT is lined by brush border epithelium to increase surface area for reabsorption.
Q79. Regarding 'Podocytes', which is true? (i) Intricate arrangement leaving slit pores. (ii) Present in the renal tubules. (iii) Prevent proteins from entering the lumen.
Correct Answer: (a)
Podocytes are in Bowman's capsule, not the tubules.
Q80. Which of the following describes the human kidney correctly? (i) red-brown, bean-shaped. (ii) 10-12 cm in length. (iii) Average weight of 120-170 g. (iv) Situated between T12 and L3.
Correct Answer: (b)
All morphological and spatial parameters are correctly listed.
Q81. Assertion: Counter current mechanism helps in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medulla.
Reason: The gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and urea.
Correct Answer: (a)
The solutes NaCl and urea are the primary drivers of the medullary osmotic gradient.
Q82. Correct statements about 'Renal Calculi': (i) Stone or insoluble mass. (ii) Formed of oxalates. (iii) Leads to inflammation of glomeruli.
Correct Answer: (a)
Glomerulonephritis is the inflammatory condition.
Q83. Match the limb function in Henle's Loop:
Limb
Action
A. Descending
(I) Concentrates filtrate
B. Ascending
(II) Dilutes filtrate
Correct Answer: (a)
Changes in filtrate concentration along the loop.
Q84. Regarding 'Urine Formation', which statements are true? (i) Glomerular filtration is non-selective. (ii) Reabsorption of nutrients occurs mostly in PCT. (iii) Tubular secretion helps in maintaining ionic balance.
Correct Answer: (b)
Urine formation involves all three steps with their specific roles.
Q85. Assertion: Human lungs help in excretion.
Reason: They remove approximately 200ml of CO2 per minute.
Correct Answer: (a)
Removal of metabolic waste (CO2) by lungs is a part of excretion.
Q86. Identify the correct statements for 'Henle's Loop': (i) Reabsorption is minimum in its ascending limb. (ii) Descending limb is impermeable to electrolytes. (iii) Ascending limb allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively.
Correct Answer: (b)
All points correctly describe the physiology of Henle's loop.
Q87. Assertion: Kidneys do not play a significant role in ammonia removal in bony fishes.
Reason: Ammonia is excreted by diffusion across gill surfaces as ammonium ions.
Correct Answer: (a)
Ammonia's high solubility allows it to diffuse directly into water via gills.
Q88. Regarding the 'Counter Current Mechanism', which are correct? (i) Formed by Henle's loop and vasa recta. (ii) Osmolarity in medulla increases from 300 to 1200 mOsmolL-1. (iii) Urea and NaCl create the gradient.
Correct Answer: (a)
The concentration of urine depends on the osmolarity gradient in the medulla.
Q89. Stones or insoluble masses of crystallized salts (oxalates) in the kidney are:
Correct Answer: (b)
Renal calculi are crystallized salt masses formed within the kidney.
Q90. Identify correct features of the 'Renal Pelvis': (i) Funnel shaped space. (ii) Located inner to hilum. (iii) Contains projections called medullary pyramids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Pelvis contains calyces; pyramids are in the medulla.
Q91. Regarding 'Tubular Secretion', which is correct? (i) Secretion of H+, K+ and ammonia. (ii) Occurs in PCT and DCT. (iii) Maintains pH of body fluids.
Correct Answer: (a)
Secretion is a vital step for chemical and ionic balance.
Q92. Glycosuria and Ketonuria in urine are indicative of:
Correct Answer: (b)
The presence of glucose and ketone bodies is a clinical indicator of diabetes.
Q93. Match the hormones with their triggers/functions:
Hormone
Role/Trigger
A. ADH
(I) Released due to fall in GFR
B. Renin
(II) Facilitates water reabsorption
C. ANF
(III) Vasodilator (decreases BP)
Correct Answer: (a)
Regulation of kidney function section.
Q94. Assertion: Sebaceous glands help in excretion.
Reason: They eliminate substances like sterols and waxes through sebum.
Correct Answer: (a)
Elimination of lipids via sebum is a form of excretory function.
Q95. Match the urine characteristics:
Feature
Value
A. pH
(I) 6.0
B. Volume/day
(II) 1 - 1.5 L
Correct Answer: (a)
Physiological properties of urine.
Q96. Assertion: Ammonia requires a large amount of water for its elimination.
Reason: Ammonia is the most toxic form of nitrogenous waste.
Correct Answer: (a)
High toxicity necessitates dilution for safe excretion.
Q97. Assertion: 99% of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed.
Reason: Urine output is about 1.5 litres per day compared to 180 litres of filtrate.
Correct Answer: (a)
The difference in volume confirms massive reabsorption by renal tubules.
Q98. The process of excreting ammonia is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Excreting ammonia is termed ammonotelism.
Q99. Match Column-I with Column-II based on nephron types:
Feature
Nephron Type
A. Short Henle’s loop
(I) Cortical nephron
B. Long Henle’s loop
(II) Juxta medullary nephron
C. Reduced Vasa recta
(III) Cortical nephron
Correct Answer: (a)
Classification of nephrons.
Q100. Match the process with its primary site:
Column-I (Process)
Column-II (Site)
A. Ultra filtration
(I) Collecting duct
B. Reabsorption of nutrients
(II) Glomerulus
C. Urine concentration
(III) Henle's loop and Vasa recta
D. Water reabsorption
(IV) PCT
Correct Answer: (a)
Functional mapping of the nephron.
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