Q1. Which statements correctly describe the endomembrane system? (i) ER, Golgi, Lysosomes, and Vacuoles are its components. (ii) Their functions are coordinated. (iii) Peroxisomes are also a part of this system.
Correct Answer: (a)
Peroxisomes are NOT part of the endomembrane system.
Q2. Which is true for centrosomes? (i) It usually contains two cylindrical structures called centrioles. (ii) They are surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials. (iii) Both centrioles lie parallel to each other.
Correct Answer: (a)
Centrioles lie perpendicular to each other.
Q3. Match the bacterial shapes:
Column I
Column II
A. Bacillus
(I) Comma shaped
B. Coccus
(II) Spiral
C. Vibrio
(III) Rod like
D. Spirillum
(IV) Spherical
Correct Answer: (a)
Four basic shapes of bacteria.
Q4. Which statements about chromatin are correct? (i) Stained by basic dyes. (ii) Named by Flemming. (iii) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibers.
Correct Answer: (a)
All points are in section 8.5.10.
Q5. Plastids that store oils and fats are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Elaioplasts store oils and fats; Amyloplasts store starch; Aleuroplasts store proteins.
Q6. Match the cell envelope components with their descriptions:
Column I
Column II
A. Slime layer
(I) Thick and tough glycocalyx
B. Capsule
(II) Loose sheath glycocalyx
C. Cell wall
(III) Determines cell shape
D. Plasma membrane
(IV) Selectively permeable
Correct Answer: (a)
Features of the bacterial cell envelope.
Q7. Match the organelle structure terms:
Column I
Column II
A. Cristae
(I) Flattened sacs in stroma
B. Cisternae
(II) Infoldings in mitochondria
C. Thylakoids
(III) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomical terms for membrane folds.
Q8. Matthias Schleiden was a German:
Correct Answer: (b)
Schleiden was a German botanist who examined plants in 1838.
Q9. Regarding active transport: (i) It is an energy-dependent process. (ii) Molecules move against the concentration gradient. (iii) ATP is utilized.
Correct Answer: (a)
Correct definition of active transport.
Q10. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA form a chain called:
Correct Answer: (a)
They are called polyribosomes or polysomes.
Q11. The major site for synthesis of lipids in animal cells is:
Correct Answer: (b)
The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is the major site for lipid synthesis.
Q12. Which statements about the Golgi apparatus are true? (i) It was first observed by Camillo Golgi in 1898. (ii) It consists of flattened sacs called cisternae. (iii) It is the site for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids.
Correct Answer: (a)
All points are characteristically true for the Golgi.
Q13. The arrangement of microtubules in eukaryotic cilia and flagella is:
Correct Answer: (b)
They show a 9 peripheral doublets and 2 central microtubules arrangement.
Q14. Match the cilia/flagella components:
Column I
Column II
A. Axoneme
(I) 9 triplets
B. Central sheath
(II) Core of cilium
C. Radial spoke
(III) Encloses central microtubules
D. Centriole
(IV) Connects doublet to sheath
Correct Answer: (a)
Anatomy of locomotory organelles.
Q15. Ribosomes are found in which part of the eukaryotic cell besides the cytoplasm?
Correct Answer: (c)
Within the cell, ribosomes are found in the cytoplasm, chloroplasts (in plants), mitochondria, and on rough ER.
Q16. Which of the following lacks membrane-bound organelles?
Correct Answer: (c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria and ER.
Q17. Which of the following phylum is being described by the given statements? (i) These are unicellular organisms capable of independent existence. (ii) They can perform essential functions of life. (iii) Anything less than a complete structure of this does not ensure independent living.
Correct Answer: (b)
Basic definition of a cell as the unit of life.
Q18. The diameter of a human red blood cell is approximately:
Correct Answer: (c)
Human red blood cells are about 7.0 μm in diameter.
Q19. Which statement is true for ribosomes? (i) They are not surrounded by any membrane. (ii) George Palade observed them as dense particles. (iii) They are composed of RNA and proteins.
Correct Answer: (a)
All these are standard ribosome characteristics.
Q20. The space limited by the inner membrane of the chloroplast is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
The space limited by the inner membrane is the stroma.
Q21. Match the following for RBC membrane:
Component
Percentage
A. Protein
(I) ~52%
B. Lipid
(II) ~40%
Correct Answer: (a)
Data specifically mentioned for human erythrocytes.
Q22. Match the proteinous filaments of cytoskeleton:
A. Microtubules
B. Microfilaments
C. Intermediate filaments
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 8.5.7 lists these three as the components.
Q23. The outermost layer of the bacterial cell envelope is the:
Correct Answer: (c)
The envelope consists of the outermost glycocalyx, followed by cell wall and plasma membrane.
Q24. Regarding the fluid nature of membrane: (i) Enables lateral movement of proteins. (ii) Important for cell growth and endocytosis. (iii) Fluidity is measured by lipid movement.
Correct Answer: (a)
Fluidity is measured as the ability of proteins to move within the bilayer.
Q25. Regarding the chloroplast, identify the correct statements: (i) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called grana. (ii) Stroma contains enzymes for carbohydrate synthesis. (iii) It contains large 80S ribosomes.
Q26. Select the correct statements about the cytoskeleton: (i) It is an elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures. (ii) It provides mechanical support and motility. (iii) It is involved in maintenance of the shape of the cell.
Correct Answer: (a)
All functions are correctly listed.
Q27. Assertion: All cells arise from pre-existing cells.
Reason: Rudolf Virchow modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann.
Correct Answer: (a)
Virchow added the concept of 'Omnis cellula-e cellula' to the cell theory.
Q28. G.N. Ramachandran is famous for his discovery of the triple helical structure of:
Correct Answer: (c)
G.N. Ramachandran discovered the triple helical structure of collagen in 1954.
Q29. In prokaryotes, the genomic DNA is:
Correct Answer: (b)
The genetic material is basically naked and consists of a single chromosome/circular DNA.
Q30. Regarding the nuclear envelope: (i) It has two parallel membranes. (ii) Outer membrane is continuous with ER. (iii) Nuclear pores allow one-way movement of molecules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Movement through nuclear pores is in both directions.
Q31. Assertion: Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous organelles.
Reason: They possess their own DNA and 70S ribosomes.
Correct Answer: (a)
The presence of genetic material and protein-synthesis machinery makes them semi-autonomous.
Q32. Assertion: Eukaryotic cells have extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm.
Reason: Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
Q33. Bacteria that take up the Gram stain are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Those that take up the stain are Gram positive.
Q34. Match the endomembrane system components:
Column I
Column II
A. RER
(I) Synthesis of steroidal hormones
B. SER
(II) Packaging site
C. Golgi
(III) Protein synthesis and secretion
D. Tonoplast
(IV) Membrane of vacuole
Correct Answer: (a)
Functions and definitions of endomembrane parts.
Q35. A thick and tough glycocalyx in bacteria is known as:
Correct Answer: (b)
Glycocalyx can be a loose sheath (slime layer) or thick and tough (capsule).
Q36. The physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The unit introduction defines the physico-chemical approach as 'Reductionist Biology'.
Q37. Who first saw and described a live cell?
Correct Answer: (c)
Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell; Robert Brown later discovered the nucleus.
Q38. Assertion: Mycoplasmas can survive without oxygen.
Reason: They are the smallest living cells and lack a cell wall.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true facts from the text, but the size/lack of wall isn't the reason they are anaerobic.
Q39. Match the vacuole types:
Type
Function/Organism
A. Contractile vacuole
(I) Engulfing food
B. Food vacuole
(II) Osmoregulation in Amoeba
C. Sap vacuole
(III) Occupies 90% of plant cell
Correct Answer: (a)
Vacuolar diversity and roles.
Q40. The Fluid Mosaic Model was proposed by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Proposed in 1972 by Singer and Nicolson.
Q41. The main arena of cellular activities in both plant and animal cells is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Cytoplasm is the semi-fluid matrix where various chemical reactions occur to keep the cell living.
Q42. Match the cell types with their characteristics:
Column I
Column II
A. Mycoplasma
(I) About 7.0 μm in diameter
B. Ostrich egg
(II) Smallest cell (0.3 μm)
C. Human RBC
(III) Longest cells
D. Nerve cell
(IV) Largest isolated single cell
Correct Answer: (a)
Measurements and categories as stated in Figure 8.1 and text.
Q43. Non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location on chromosomes are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
They give the appearance of a small fragment called the satellite.
Q44. Assertion: The number of mitochondria per cell is variable.
Reason: It depends on the physiological activity of the cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cells with higher energy needs (like muscles) have more mitochondria.
Q45. Regarding the cell wall, which is correct? (i) It is a non-living rigid structure. (ii) Primary wall of young plant is capable of growth. (iii) Secondary wall is formed on the outer side of the cell.
Correct Answer: (a)
Secondary wall is formed on the inner side.
Q46. Match the plastid types with their storage products:
Column I
Column II
A. Amyloplasts
(I) Store proteins
B. Elaioplasts
(II) Store starch
C. Aleuroplasts
(III) Store oils and fats
Correct Answer: (a)
Leucoplast classification.
Q47. Membranous extensions containing pigments in cyanobacteria are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Chromatophores are membranous extensions in cyanobacteria that contain pigments.
Q48. A metacentric chromosome has centromere:
Correct Answer: (c)
Metacentric centromeres are in the middle, forming two equal arms.
Q49. Which of the following is correct? (i) Robert Brown discovered the cell. (ii) Schleiden and Schwann formulated cell theory. (iii) A unicellular organism carries out life activities in a single cell.
Correct Answer: (a)
Robert Brown discovered the nucleus, not the cell.
Q50. Match the inclusion bodies:
Type
Example
A. Phosphate granules
Inclusion body
B. Glycogen granules
Inclusion body
C. Gas vacuoles
In Blue green algae
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 8.4.2 listings.
Q51. Assertion: Animal cells do not have a cell wall.
Reason: The cell wall is a unique character of plant cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
As Schwann concluded, the wall is a distinguishing feature for plants.
Q52. Which organelle is known as the 'Power House' of the cell?
Correct Answer: (c)
Mitochondria produce cellular energy in the form of ATP.
Q53. Which of the following is correct regarding cell theory? (i) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells. (ii) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. (iii) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is incorrect; cells come from pre-existing cells.
Q54. Assertion: The axoneme has 9 peripheral doublets and 2 central microtubules.
Reason: This arrangement is known as the 9+2 array.
Correct Answer: (a)
The definition of the 9+2 array is the arrangement described.
Q55. The prokaryotic flagellum is composed of:
Correct Answer: (b)
Bacterial flagellum consists of filament, hook, and basal body.
Q56. Assertion: SER is involved in lipid synthesis.
Reason: Steroidal hormones are synthesized in SER in animal cells.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but hormone synthesis is an example of lipid synthesis, not the general 'reason' for the first statement.
Q57. Match the plant cell wall composition:
Organism Group
Cell Wall Component
A. Algae
(I) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, Pectin
B. Plants
(II) Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans
Correct Answer: (a)
Distinction in wall chemistry between algae and higher plants.
Q58. Which organelle is non-membrane bound and found in animal cells to help in cell division?
Correct Answer: (b)
Centrosomes are non-membrane bound organelles found in animal cells.
Q59. Assertion: Ribosomes of chloroplasts are 70S.
Reason: Cytoplasmic ribosomes in plants are 80S.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but one fact doesn't explain the other.
Q60. Theodore Schwann concluded that the presence of ______ is a unique character of plant cells.
Correct Answer: (c)
Schwann (a zoologist) concluded that the cell wall is unique to plant cells.
Q61. Select correct statements about cilia and flagella: (i) Cilia are shorter and work like oars. (ii) Flagella are longer and responsible for cell movement. (iii) Eukaryotic flagella are structurally same as prokaryotic flagella.
Correct Answer: (a)
Eukaryotic and prokaryotic flagella are structurally different.
Q62. Assertion: Secondary wall is formed on the inner side of the plant cell.
Reason: Primary wall gradually diminishes as the cell matures.
Correct Answer: (a)
As growth stops (primary diminishes), the secondary wall is deposited.
Q63. In human erythrocytes (RBCs), the percentage of protein in the membrane is:
Correct Answer: (b)
RBC membranes have 52% protein and 40% lipids.
Q64. Assertion: Centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella.
Reason: They also give rise to the spindle apparatus in animal cells during division.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true functions, but the spindle apparatus role doesn't explain the basal body role.
Q65. Algal cell walls are made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and:
Correct Answer: (c)
Algae have cell walls made of cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals like CaCO3.
Q66. Which of the following is NOT part of the endomembrane system?
Correct Answer: (c)
Mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes are not considered part of the endomembrane system.
Q67. Match the following scientists with their contributions:
Column I
Column II
A. Robert Brown
(I) Discovered the live cell
B. Antonie von Leeuwenhoek
(II) Discovered the nucleus
C. Rudolf Virchow
(III) Discovered Ribosomes
D. George Palade
(IV) Omnis cellula-e cellula
Correct Answer: (a)
Correct historical matches per the chapter.
Q68. Match the chromosome types with centromere positions:
Column I
Column II
A. Metacentric
(I) Centromere at terminal end
B. Sub-metacentric
(II) Centromere in the middle
C. Acrocentric
(III) Centromere slightly away from middle
D. Telocentric
(IV) Centromere close to end
Correct Answer: (a)
Chromosome classification based on centromere position.
Q69. Match the sedimentation coefficient subunit (Prokaryotes):
Q70. Mitochondrial matrix contains which type of ribosomes?
Correct Answer: (b)
Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain 70S ribosomes.
Q71. Match the organelles with their functions:
Column I
Column II
A. Mitochondria
(I) Packaging of materials
B. Golgi Apparatus
(II) Protein synthesis
C. Ribosomes
(III) Digestion
D. Lysosomes
(IV) ATP production
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard organelle functions.
Q72. A specialized differentiated form of cell membrane characteristic of prokaryotes is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Mesosomes are essentially infoldings of the cell membrane in prokaryotes.
Q73. Which organism is the smallest cell known with a length of only 0.3 μm?
Correct Answer: (b)
Mycoplasmas are the smallest cells at 0.3 μm in length.
Q74. Which of the following is true for mitochondria? (i) They are double membrane-bound. (ii) The inner membrane forms infoldings called cristae. (iii) They divide by mitosis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Mitochondria divide by fission, not mitosis.
Q75. Regarding the cell membrane, which are correct? (i) Phospholipids are arranged in a bilayer. (ii) Polar heads are towards the inner part. (iii) Hydrophobic tails are protected from the aqueous environment.
Correct Answer: (a)
Polar heads are towards the outer side, not inner.
Q76. Assertion: The content of the nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
Reason: The nucleolus is not a membrane-bound structure.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lack of a membrane allows it to be continuous with the surrounding nucleoplasm.
Q77. Match the centriole arrangement:
A. Centrioles
Perpendicular to each other
B. Organization
Like the cartwheel
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 8.5.9 description.
Q78. Assertion: Ribosomes are non-membrane bound organelles.
Reason: They are found only in eukaryotic cells.
Correct Answer: (c)
Ribosomes are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
Q79. Assertion: Human RBCs lack a nucleus.
Reason: Mature mammalian RBCs are generally without a nucleus to provide more space for hemoglobin.
Correct Answer: (a)
This is a key structural adaptation for oxygen transport.
Q80. Assertion: Prokaryotic cells multiply more rapidly than eukaryotic cells.
Reason: Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller in size.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but rapid multiplication is a metabolic feature not solely dictated by size.
Q81. Identify the correct statements for chromosomes: (i) A single human cell has approx. 2m long DNA. (ii) Centromere holds two chromatids. (iii) Kinetochores are disc-shaped structures on the sides of centromere.
Correct Answer: (a)
All these structural details are provided in the text.
Q82. Which statements are correct regarding the nucleus? (i) Robert Brown described it in 1831. (ii) Perinuclear space is 100-500 nm wide. (iii) Nucleolus is the site for active rRNA synthesis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Perinuclear space is 10-50 nm wide.
Q83. Assertion: Mesosomes help in respiration and secretion in prokaryotes.
Reason: They increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.
Correct Answer: (a)
Extra surface area provided by infoldings allows more enzymes for metabolic processes.
Q84. Who modified the cell theory to state 'Omnis cellula-e cellula'?
Correct Answer: (c)
Virchow (1855) first explained that cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-existing cells.
Q85. The movement of water across the membrane by diffusion is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Movement of water by diffusion is termed osmosis.
Q86. Match the sedimentation coefficient subunit (Eukaryotes):
Correct Answer: (a)
Terminology related to the nucleus.
Q88. Assertion: Lysosomes are called 'suicidal bags'.
Reason: They are rich in hydrolytic enzymes active at acidic pH.
Correct Answer: (a)
The enzymes can digest the cell components if the lysosome bursts.
Q89. Match the 'S' in ribosomes:
Symbol
Meaning
S
Svedberg's Unit
Measure
Sedimentation coefficient
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 8.5.6 explanation.
Q90. The layer of calcium pectate that glues neighboring cells together is:
Correct Answer: (c)
The middle lamella is mainly of calcium pectate.
Q91. Assertion: The Golgi apparatus remains in close association with the ER.
Reason: Materials to be packaged from the ER fuse with the cis face of the Golgi.
Correct Answer: (a)
Vesicles leave the ER and enter the Golgi for modification.
Q92. The 'Na+/K+ Pump' is an example of:
Correct Answer: (d)
It is an energy-dependent process using ATP to move ions against the gradient.
Q93. George Palade first observed which organelle under an electron microscope in 1953?
Correct Answer: (b)
Palade observed ribosomes as dense particles.
Q94. The eukaryotic 80S ribosome is composed of subunits:
Correct Answer: (b)
80S consists of 60S and 40S subunits.
Q95. Assertion: Chromatin contains DNA and histones.
Reason: Histones are basic proteins that help in DNA packaging.
Correct Answer: (a)
DNA wraps around histones to form the structured chromatin/chromosomes.
Q96. The size of a prokaryotic ribosome is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S (composed of 50S and 30S subunits).
Q97. What confers the unique phenotypic character of antibiotic resistance to some bacteria?
Correct Answer: (c)
Small circular DNA outside genomic DNA called plasmids provide resistance to antibiotics.
Q98. Which structure in bacteria helps in cell wall formation and DNA replication?
Correct Answer: (c)
Mesosomes help in cell wall formation, DNA replication, and distribution to daughter cells.
Q99. Assertion: Plasma membrane is selectively permeable.
Reason: It allows all substances to pass through it equally.
Correct Answer: (c)
Selectively permeable means it only allows certain molecules to pass.
Q100. Identify the correct statements about prokaryotic cells: (i) They generally multiply more rapidly than eukaryotic cells. (ii) They contain a well-defined nucleus. (iii) Plasmids are found in many bacteria.
Correct Answer: (a)
Prokaryotes lack a well-defined nucleus.
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