Q1. Identify correct features of Meiosis II: (i) Resembles a normal mitosis. (ii) Initiated immediately after cytokinesis. (iii) Centromeres split during Anaphase II.
Correct Answer: (c)
Meiosis II serves to separate sister chromatids formed in the first S phase.
Q2. Match the phases of Meiosis II:
Column I
Column II
A. Metaphase II
(I) Tetrad of cells
B. Anaphase II
(II) Alignment at equator
C. Telophase II
(III) Splitting of centromere
Correct Answer: (a)
Events in Meiosis II.
Q3. The stage of mitosis where chromosomes are most easily studied under the microscope is:
Correct Answer: (b)
By metaphase, condensation is complete and morphology of chromosomes is most easily studied.
Q4. Select the correct statements about Pachytene: (i) Four chromatids of each bivalent become distinct (tetrad). (ii) Appearance of recombination nodules. (iii) Recombination is completed by the end of this stage.
Correct Answer: (c)
Pachytene is the most active phase for genetic recombination.
Q5. Cells that do not divide further exit G1 phase to enter an inactive stage called:
Correct Answer: (d)
Cells that do not divide exit G1 to enter the quiescent stage (G0).
Q6. The splitting of centromeres and separation of chromatids occurs during:
Correct Answer: (c)
During anaphase, centromeres split and chromatids separate.
Q7. Assertion: Meiosis maintains the specific chromosome number of each species across generations.
Reason: It involves two sequential cycles of DNA replication.
Correct Answer: (c)
Reason is false; meiosis involves only a single cycle of DNA replication.
Q8. Which of the following statements about cell growth is correct? (i) Cell growth (cytoplasmic increase) is a continuous process. (ii) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific stage. (iii) All cell cycle events are under genetic control.
Correct Answer: (c)
As stated in the introduction to section 10.1.
Q9. Match the proteins involved:
A. Tubulin
Centrioles / Microtubules
B. Recombinase
Crossing over
Correct Answer: (a)
Tubulin is the protein for microtubules (Section 8.5.9 context in PDF) and Recombinase is for crossing over.
Q10. During Anaphase I, what happens to the sister chromatids?
Correct Answer: (b)
In Anaphase I, homologous chromosomes separate, but sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres.
Q11. Match the terms with their definitions:
Column I
Column II
A. Karyokinesis
(I) Division of cytoplasm
B. Cytokinesis
(II) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
C. Synapsis
(III) Nuclear division
D. Crossing over
(IV) Exchange of genetic material
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard biological definitions from the text.
Q12. During which phase is the cell metabolically active and continuously growing but does not replicate DNA?
Correct Answer: (b)
In G1 phase, the cell is metabolically active and grows but does not replicate DNA.
Q13. Which of the following is correct? (i) Antonie Von Leeuwenhoek first saw a live cell. (ii) Robert Brown discovered the nucleus. (iii) Every chromosome has a centromere.
Correct Answer: (c)
Combined facts from the Unit 3 introduction and Chapter 10.
Q14. Assertion: Diakinesis represents transition to metaphase.
Reason: By the end of diakinesis, the nuclear envelope breaks down.
Correct Answer: (a)
The completion of prophase I (diakinesis) readies the cell for metaphase I.
Q15. Which phase is characterized by chromosomes moving to the spindle equator and aligning along the metaphase plate?
Correct Answer: (b)
Alignment at the equator along the metaphase plate is the key feature of metaphase.
Q16. In animal cells, cytokinesis is achieved by the appearance of a ______ in the plasma membrane.
Correct Answer: (b)
In animal cells, cytokinesis occurs by the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
Q17. Assertion: The interphase is called the resting phase.
Reason: It is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing cell growth and DNA replication.
Correct Answer: (a)
Though called 'resting', it is a period of high biosynthetic activity to prepare for M phase.
Q18. Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs during:
Correct Answer: (c)
Diakinesis is marked by the terminalisation of chiasmata.
Q19. Chromosomes move to opposite poles during Anaphase by the shortening of:
Correct Answer: (c)
Movement is achieved by the shortening of microtubules attached to kinetochores.
Q20. Identify the correct features of Telophase: (i) Chromosomes decondense and lose their individuality. (ii) Nuclear envelope develops around chromosome clusters. (iii) Nucleolus and Golgi reform.
Correct Answer: (c)
Telophase essentially reverses the events of prophase.
Q21. Match the sub-phases of Interphase with their descriptions:
Column I
Column II
A. G1 phase
(I) DNA replication
B. S phase
(II) Centriole duplication in cytoplasm
C. G2 phase
(III) Metabolically active, no DNA replication
D. S phase (animal)
(IV) Protein synthesis for mitosis
Correct Answer: (a)
G1 is active/growth; S is DNA replication; G2 is protein synthesis; S in animals includes centriole duplication.
Q22. A cell in G0 phase is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Cells in G0 stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so.
Q23. Crossing over between non-sister chromatids occurs during:
Correct Answer: (b)
Crossing over occurs during the pachytene stage of Prophase I.
Q24. Assertion: Mitosis helps in cell repair.
Reason: Cells of the upper layer of epidermis and lining of the gut are constantly being replaced.
Correct Answer: (a)
Replacing lost or damaged cells is a major function of mitosis in multicellular organisms.
Q25. Assertion: Synapsis occurs during the zygotene stage of Prophase I.
Reason: It involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Zygotene is defined by the process of homologous pairing (synapsis).
Q26. Multinucleate condition arising when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
The formation of a multinucleate condition is called a syncytium.
Q27. Match the following for Cell Cycle duration:
Column I
Column II
A. Human cell cycle
(I) About 1 hour
B. M Phase (Human)
(II) Approximately 24 hours
C. Yeast cell cycle
(III) More than 95% of cycle
D. Interphase
(IV) About 90 minutes
Correct Answer: (a)
Time durations given in section 10.1.1.
Q28. Match the stages of Meiosis I:
Column I
Column II
A. Anaphase I
(I) Homologous chromosomes separate
B. Telophase I
(II) Dyad of cells
C. Metaphase I
(III) Bivalents align at equator
Correct Answer: (a)
Sequential events in Meiosis I.
Q29. Assertion: Crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes.
Reason: It occurs between sister chromatids of a bivalent.
Correct Answer: (c)
Reason is false; crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
Q30. Match the following significance:
Column I
Column II
A. Mitosis
(I) Conservation of chromosome number
B. Meiosis
(II) Production of diploid daughter cells
C. Crossing over
(III) Cell repair
D. Mitosis
(IV) Genetic variability
Correct Answer: (a)
Significance of both divisions from sections 10.3 and 10.5.
Q31. Identify the stage: (i) Chromosomes move to opposite poles. (ii) Centromere splitting does not occur. (iii) Sister chromatids stay together.
Correct Answer: (b)
Key distinction of Anaphase I of meiosis.
Q32. The beginning of diplotene is recognized by the dissolution of the:
Correct Answer: (a)
Diplotene is recognized by the dissolution of the synaptonemal complex.
Q33. Assertion: In animal cells, the centrioles move towards opposite poles during prophase.
Reason: Centrioles undergo duplication during the G2 phase.
Correct Answer: (c)
Reason is false because centrioles duplicate during the S phase, not G2.
Q34. Assertion: Cell division does not stop with the formation of the mature organism.
Reason: Cells are constantly being replaced for repair and growth.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cells are constantly replaced to restore the body and allow for continued growth and repair.
Q35. Match the chromosomal structures:
Column I
Column II
A. Satellite
(I) Primary constriction
B. Centromere
(II) Held by centromere
C. Chromatids
(III) Secondary constriction
Correct Answer: (a)
Terminology of chromosomes.
Q36. Which statements about Diplotene are correct? (i) Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. (ii) Homologous chromosomes tend to separate. (iii) Formation of X-shaped chiasmata.
Correct Answer: (c)
Diplotene features based on section 10.4.1.
Q37. Centrosome duplication in interphase happens during:
Correct Answer: (b)
The centriole (part of centrosome) duplicates in the cytoplasm during S phase.
Q38. The interphase lasts for more than ____ of the total duration of the cell cycle.
Correct Answer: (d)
The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of the cell cycle.
Q39. Assertion: Small disc-shaped structures called kinetochores are present on the centromere.
Reason: Kinetochores serve as the sites of attachment of spindle fibres.
Correct Answer: (a)
Kinetochores are the functional link between chromosomes and the spindle apparatus.
Q40. Small disc-shaped structures at the surface of centromeres are called:
Correct Answer: (c)
These are called kinetochores and serve as attachment sites for spindle fibres.
Q41. Regarding Metaphase, which are true? (i) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores. (ii) Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator. (iii) The metaphase plate is the plane of alignment.
Correct Answer: (c)
Characteristic features of metaphase.
Q42. X-shaped structures observed during Diplotene are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The points of attachment where crossing over occurred are called chiasmata.
Q43. Regarding Prophase I, which are correct? (i) It is typically longer and more complex than prophase of mitosis. (ii) It is divided into five phases based on chromosomal behaviour. (iii) Zygotene involves the formation of the synaptonemal complex.
Correct Answer: (c)
The complexity and sub-division of meiotic prophase I.
Q44. Identify the correct events of Prophase: (i) Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material. (ii) Centrosome begins to move towards opposite poles. (iii) Nuclear envelope disintegrates.
Correct Answer: (c)
These mark the progression and completion of prophase.
Q45. Meiosis I is initiated after the parental chromosomes have replicated to produce identical sister chromatids at:
Correct Answer: (c)
DNA replication for meiosis occurs during the S phase of interphase before Meiosis I.
Q46. The term 'equational division' is applied to:
Correct Answer: (d)
Both Mitosis and Meiosis II involve the separation of sister chromatids, maintaining chromosome number.
Q47. Assertion: In S phase, the chromosome number per cell doubles.
Reason: DNA replication takes place during S phase.
Correct Answer: (d)
Assertion is false because chromosome number does not double in S phase; only DNA amount doubles.
Q48. Which statements about Cytokinesis are correct? (i) In animals, it occurs by a furrow in the plasma membrane. (ii) In plants, it starts in the centre and grows outward. (iii) Cell plate represents the middle lamella.
Correct Answer: (c)
Divergent mechanisms of cytoplasmic division in animals and plants.
Q49. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed:
Correct Answer: (b)
The text defines the cell cycle as the sequence of events involving genome duplication and cell division.
Q50. Assertion: Karyokinesis is not always followed by cytokinesis.
Reason: This leads to the formation of syncytium.
Correct Answer: (a)
Failure of cytokinesis results in multiple nuclei within one cell (syncytium).
Q51. What is the duration of the cell cycle for Yeast?
Correct Answer: (c)
Yeast can progress through the cell cycle in only about 90 minutes.
Q52. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The synapsed pair is called a bivalent or a tetrad.
Q53. Which of the following describes the 'Dyad of cells'? (i) Formed at the end of Telophase I. (ii) Consists of two cells. (iii) Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear.
Correct Answer: (c)
The result of the first meiotic division.
Q54. Significance of Meiosis includes: (i) Conservation of specific chromosome number across generations. (ii) Increase in genetic variability. (iii) Basis of evolution.
Correct Answer: (c)
Essential roles of meiosis in biology/evolution.
Q55. Match the chromosome type with centromere position:
Column I
Column II
A. Metacentric
(I) Centromere close to one end
B. Sub-metacentric
(II) Middle centromere
C. Acrocentric
(III) Terminal centromere
D. Telocentric
(IV) Slightly away from middle
Correct Answer: (a)
As per Figure 10.13 and text description.
Q56. Assertion: The period between two successive M phases is called interphase.
Reason: Cell division proper lasts for only about an hour in a 24-hour cycle.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the short duration of M phase isn't the definition of Interphase.
Q57. Assertion: Interkinesis is a short-lived stage between Meiosis I and II.
Reason: There is no replication of DNA during interkinesis.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the lack of DNA replication isn't the reason it is short-lived (it is a transitional gap).
Q58. Match the stages of Prophase I with characteristic events:
Q59. If a cell has 2C amount of DNA at G1, what will be the DNA content after S phase?
Correct Answer: (c)
During S phase, the amount of DNA per cell doubles (2C to 4C).
Q60. The enzyme involved in crossing over is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Crossing over is an enzyme-mediated process involving the enzyme recombinase.
Q61. Match the following for Prophase I phases based on sequence:
Order
Phase
1st
Leptotene
2nd
Zygotene
3rd
Pachytene
4th
Diplotene
5th
Diakinesis
Correct Answer: (a)
The correct chronological sequence of Prophase I.
Q62. Correct statements about the cell cycle: (i) Cells vary in their shape and size. (ii) All cells start their life from a single cell. (iii) Cycles of growth and division allow one cell to form millions of cells.
Correct Answer: (c)
Conceptual introduction of Chapter 10.
Q63. The production of haploid daughter cells from specialized diploid cells is achieved by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Meiosis is the specialized division that reduces the chromosome number by half to produce haploid cells.
Q64. Regarding Mitosis in plants, which are true? (i) Occurs in both haploid and diploid cells. (ii) Apical and lateral cambium show mitotic divisions. (iii) Leads to continuous growth throughout life.
Correct Answer: (a)
Plant growth regions mentioned in section 10.3.
Q66. Match the following for cytokinesis:
Column I
Column II
A. Animal cell
(I) Cell plate formation
B. Plant cell
(II) Furrow appearance
C. Liquid endosperm
(III) Middle lamella precursor
D. Cell plate
(IV) Syncytium example
Correct Answer: (a)
Cytokinesis mechanisms and examples from section 10.2.5.
Q67. In plant cells, the precursor of the cell wall is called:
Correct Answer: (a)
The formation of the new cell wall in plants begins with a precursor called the cell-plate.
Q68. A typical human cell in culture divides once in approximately every:
Correct Answer: (b)
The text states that human cells in culture divide once in approximately every 24 hours.
Q69. Which statements about the G0 stage are correct? (i) Cells remain metabolically active. (ii) Cells no longer proliferate unless called upon. (iii) Heart cells are an example of cells that do not divide often.
Correct Answer: (c)
G0 is the quiescent phase for non-dividing or occasionally dividing cells.
Q70. Assertion: Mitosis is called equational division.
Reason: The number of chromosomes in parent and progeny cells is the same.
Correct Answer: (a)
The maintenance of chromosome number defines equational division.
Q71. The stage of Prophase I where synapsis occurs is:
Correct Answer: (b)
During zygotene, chromosomes start pairing together, a process called synapsis.
Q72. Assertion: Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by a different mechanism than animal cells.
Reason: Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible cell wall.
Correct Answer: (a)
The rigid cell wall prevents the cell from 'pinching' (furrowing), requiring cell plate formation.
Q73. Assertion: Adult human haemoglobin consists of 4 subunits.
Reason: Mitosis produces daughter cells with identical genetic complements.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true facts from the unit, but they are unrelated.
Q74. Which organelle is distributed between daughter cells during cytokinesis?
Correct Answer: (c)
During cytoplasmic division, organelles like mitochondria and plastids get distributed between daughter cells.
Q75. Assertion: Crossing over is important for evolution.
Reason: It produces new combinations of genes and increases genetic variability.
Correct Answer: (a)
Variations provided by crossing over are raw materials for evolution.
Q76. Meiosis results in the formation of how many haploid cells?
Correct Answer: (c)
Meiosis ends with four haploid daughter cells.
Q77. Splitting of centromeres in meiosis occurs during:
Correct Answer: (b)
Centromeres split simultaneously for each chromosome during Anaphase II.
Q78. Regarding S phase, which statements are true? (i) DNA amount doubles. (ii) Chromosome number remains the same. (iii) Centriole duplicates in animal cells.
Correct Answer: (c)
Key molecular events in Synthesis phase.
Q79. The stage between two meiotic divisions is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The short-lived stage between Meiosis I and Meiosis II is called interkinesis.
Q80. Assertion: The nuclear membrane reappears during telophase.
Reason: Telophase is the final stage of karyokinesis.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but being the 'final stage' is not the functional reason why the membrane reappears.
Q81. Identify the correct statements about Interphase: (i) It is divided into G1, S and G2 phases. (ii) Cell division proper lasts for only an hour. (iii) Cell prepares for division by undergoing DNA replication.
Correct Answer: (c)
Interphase is the preparatory phase for M phase.
Q82. Assertion: The M phase starts with nuclear division (karyokinesis).
Reason: Karyokinesis corresponds to the separation of daughter chromosomes.
Correct Answer: (a)
The initiation of M phase is marked by the onset of nuclear division.
Q83. Centriole duplication in animal cells occurs during:
Correct Answer: (c)
In animal cells, during S phase, the centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm.
Q84. Assertion: Meiosis I is called reduction division.
Reason: It reduces the chromosome number by half.
Correct Answer: (a)
The reduction of chromosomes from 2n to n characterizes meiosis I.
Q85. Regarding Meiosis results: (i) Results in reduction of chromosome number by half. (ii) Four haploid daughter cells are formed. (iii) Restores the diploid phase upon fertilization.
Correct Answer: (c)
Overall outcome and significance of meiosis.
Q86. Match the mitosis phase with its key feature:
Q87. Which process increases genetic variability in the population from one generation to the next?
Correct Answer: (b)
Meiosis increases genetic variability due to crossing over and independent assortment.
Q88. Which statements about Anaphase are correct? (i) Centromeres split simultaneously. (ii) Chromatids move to opposite poles. (iii) Centromere of each chromosome remains directed towards the pole.
Correct Answer: (c)
Anaphase involves the actual separation and migration of genetic material.
Q89. Select correct statements about chromosomes in Metaphase I: (i) Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate. (ii) Microtubules from opposite poles attach to homologous chromosomes. (iii) Sister chromatids separate during this stage.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sister chromatids do not separate in Metaphase I; bivalents align.
Q90. The reform of nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER occurs in:
Correct Answer: (d)
Telophase is the stage where organelles like nucleolus and ER reform.
Q91. Identify the features of Meiosis: (i) Two sequential cycles of nuclear division (Meiosis I and II). (ii) Only a single cycle of DNA replication. (iii) Homologous chromosomes pair and recombine.
Correct Answer: (c)
General characteristics of meiotic division.
Q92. Significance of Mitosis includes: (i) Production of diploid daughter cells with identical genetic complement. (ii) Growth of multicellular organisms. (iii) Cell repair and replacement of blood cells.
Correct Answer: (c)
Fundamental roles of mitotic division in life.
Q93. Nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear during:
Correct Answer: (a)
At the end of prophase, the nuclear envelope and nucleolus disappear.
Q94. Match the following cell types with their division patterns:
Column I
Column II
A. Diploid somatic cells
(I) Mitosis in animals
B. Male honey bees
(II) Haploid mitosis
C. Specialized diploid cells
(III) Meiosis
Correct Answer: (a)
Examples of division types from the text.
Q95. During S phase, if the initial chromosome number was 2n, the number of chromosomes after S phase will be:
Correct Answer: (c)
Though DNA doubles in S phase, there is no increase in the chromosome number; it remains 2n.
Q96. In oocytes of some vertebrates, which stage can last for months or years?
Correct Answer: (c)
The text states that in oocytes of some vertebrates, diplotene can last for months or years.
Q97. In the cell cycle, DNA synthesis occurs during:
Correct Answer: (c)
DNA synthesis or replication takes place specifically during the S (synthesis) phase.
Q98. Mitosis is also called as:
Correct Answer: (b)
Since the number of chromosomes remains the same in parent and progeny, it is called equational division.
Q99. Identify the correct phylum/group being described: (i) These cells enter an inactive stage (G0). (ii) They remain metabolically active. (iii) Example: Heart cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Description of G0 stage as per section 10.1.1.
Q100. Regarding Interkinesis, which are true? (i) Stage between Meiosis I and II. (ii) No DNA replication occurs. (iii) Generally short-lived.
Correct Answer: (c)
Properties of the meiotic gap stage.
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