Biotechnology and its Applications (NCERT Practice Paper)
Q1. Which of the following is correct regarding human insulin production? (i) Insulin consists of two chains linked by hydrogen bonds. (ii) Eli Lilly produced it in 1983 using E. coli plasmids. (iii) Pro-insulin contains a C-peptide that is removed during maturation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Insulin chains are linked by disulphide bonds, not hydrogen (i false). Eli Lilly produced human insulin in 1983 using E. coli (ii true). Pro‑insulin has a C‑peptide that is removed (iii true). So (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Q2. Match the medical application with its primary goal:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Gene therapy
(I) Early detection of pathogen
B. PCR
(II) Correcting a defective gene
C. ELISA
(III) Antigen-antibody interaction detection
Correct Answer: (a)
Gene therapy aims to correct defective genes (II). PCR is used for early detection of pathogens by amplifying their DNA (I). ELISA detects antigens/antibodies via interaction (III). Thus A–II, B–I, C–III is correct.
Q3. Identify correct features of 'RNA Interference': (i) Method of cellular defense. (ii) silences specific mRNA. (iii) uses double stranded RNA (dsRNA).
Correct Answer: (a)
RNAi is a cellular defense (i), it silences specific mRNA (ii), and it is triggered by dsRNA (iii). All features are correct.
Q4. In RNAi, the silencing of a specific mRNA is due to:
Correct Answer: (b)
RNAi is initiated by double‑stranded RNA (dsRNA) that is complementary to the target mRNA. The dsRNA is processed by Dicer into small interfering RNAs (siRNAs), which guide the RNA‑induced silencing complex (RISC) to cleave the mRNA, preventing translation.
Q5. Assertion: Pro-insulin contains an extra stretch called C peptide.
Reason: C peptide is essential for the biological activity of mature insulin.
Correct Answer: (a)
Pro‑insulin indeed has a C‑peptide connecting the A and B chains. However, the C‑peptide is removed during maturation and is not present in active insulin; it is not essential for insulin's biological activity. Thus the assertion is true but the reason is false.
Q6. Assertion: GEAC is an Indian government organization.
Reason: It makes decisions regarding the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
Correct Answer: (a)
GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) is indeed a statutory body under the Indian Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Its primary role is to evaluate and approve the safe use of genetically modified organisms in research, field trials, and commercial release.
Q7. RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in:
Correct Answer: (b)
RNAi is a conserved cellular defense mechanism found in all eukaryotic organisms, from yeast to humans. It involves the degradation of specific mRNA molecules triggered by double‑stranded RNA (dsRNA), protecting the cell against viral infections and transposon activity.
Q8. Which are correct for 'ADA Gene Therapy'? (i) Uses retroviral vectors. (ii) Function ADA cDNA is introduced into lymphocytes. (iii) Cells are returned to the patient.
Correct Answer: (a)
ADA gene therapy employs retroviral vectors to deliver the ADA gene (i), the functional cDNA is introduced into lymphocytes (ii), and the modified cells are infused back into the patient (iii). All steps are correct.
Q9. Match the organizations/terms with their context:
Column-I
Column-II
A. GEAC
(I) Unauthorised use of bio-resources
B. Biopiracy
(II) Committee for GM research safety
C. CDRI
(III) Development of 'Saheli'
Correct Answer: (a)
GEAC is the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (II). Biopiracy refers to unauthorised use of bio‑resources (I). CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute) developed the contraceptive 'Saheli' (III). So A–II, B–I, C–III.
Q10. Bt toxin is produced by the bacterium:
Correct Answer: (b)
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a soil bacterium that naturally produces insecticidal crystal proteins (Cry proteins). These proteins are toxic to certain insect orders but safe for humans and other non‑target organisms.
Q11. Biopiracy is the use of bio-resources by multinational companies without:
Correct Answer: (b)
Biopiracy refers to the exploitation of biological resources (e.g., plants, traditional knowledge) by corporations without obtaining proper authorisation or providing fair compensation to the communities or countries of origin.
Q12. Which of the following is NOT one of the three critical research areas of biotechnology?
Correct Answer: (c)
Biotechnology focuses on three key areas: finding the best catalyst (enzyme/microbe), engineering optimal conditions for reactions, and downstream processing (purification and formulation). Traditional breeding, while important, is not a critical research area of modern biotechnology; it is a conventional method.
Q13. Select correct statements for 'GEAC': (i) Stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee. (ii) Makes decisions on GM research validity. (iii) It is an international body under WHO.
Correct Answer: (a)
GEAC stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (i true) and is responsible for evaluating GM research safety in India (ii true). It is a national, not international, body (iii false). So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q14. Match the following for ADA deficiency:
S.No.
Cure Method
A. Bone marrow transplantation
(I) Not completely curative
B. Enzyme replacement
(II) Not completely curative
C. Gene therapy (embryonic)
(III) Permanent cure
Correct Answer: (a)
Bone marrow transplantation and enzyme replacement therapy are not permanent cures (I and II). Gene therapy performed at the embryonic stage can provide a permanent cure (III). So A–I, B–II, C–III.
Q15. Assertion: In RNAi, the source of complementary RNA can be from transposons.
Reason: Transposons are mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Transposons can produce dsRNA when they transpose via an RNA intermediate. This dsRNA can trigger RNAi, silencing transposon activity and thus serving as a cellular defense mechanism.
Q16. Assertion: In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice.
Reason: This 'new' variety was actually derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
Correct Answer: (a)
The American company RiceTec was granted a patent on a Basmati rice variety in 1997. This was controversial because the variety was essentially derived from traditional Indian Basmati germplasm, without proper acknowledgement or compensation—a classic case of biopiracy.
Q17. The nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Meloidogyne incognita is a root‑knot nematode that attacks tobacco and many other crops. It causes severe yield losses by forming galls on roots, interfering with nutrient and water uptake.
Q18. Regarding 'Basmati Rice': (i) 27 documented varieties in India. (ii) Unique aroma and flavor. (iii) US patent 1997 claimed Indian varieties as novelty.
Correct Answer: (a)
India has 27 documented Basmati varieties (i), known for unique aroma and flavor (ii). In 1997, a US patent on Basmati was granted, claiming novelty based on Indian varieties (iii). All statements are correct.
Q19. Identify true statements for 'Transgenic Rosie': (i) First transgenic cow (1997). (ii) Produced human protein-enriched milk. (iii) Milk contained 2.4 grams protein per litre.
Correct Answer: (a)
Rosie was the first transgenic cow, born in 1997 (i). Her milk contained human alpha‑lactalbumin (ii) at a concentration of 2.4 g/L (iii). All statements are correct.
Q20. Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced milk enriched with:
Correct Answer: (b)
Rosie, the first transgenic cow, was engineered to produce human alpha‑lactalbumin in her milk. This protein is a major component of human breast milk and enhances the nutritional quality of cow's milk for infant feeding.
Q21. Which are correct for 'Bioreactors'? (i) Use microbial, plant, animal or human cells. (ii) Provide optimal growth conditions (temp, pH, oxygen). (iii) Usually process small volumes like 1-5 litres.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bioreactors can host various cell types (i true) and maintain optimal conditions for growth (ii true). They are used for large‑scale production (100–1000 L), not small volumes (iii false). So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q22. Match the following for insulin structure:
Component
Feature
A. Chain A & B
(I) Removed during maturation
B. C-peptide
(II) Linked by disulphide bonds
Correct Answer: (a)
In mature insulin, the A and B chains are held together by disulphide bonds (II). The C‑peptide is cleaved off during maturation (I). Hence A–II, B–I.
Q23. Regarding 'Biopiracy', select the correct statements: (i) Use of bio-resources by MNCs without authorisation. (ii) Lack of compensatory payment to the source country. (iii) Most industrialised nations are rich in traditional knowledge.
Correct Answer: (a)
Biopiracy involves unauthorised use of bio‑resources and lack of compensation (i, ii true). Industrialised nations are generally not rich in traditional knowledge; they often exploit resources from developing countries (iii false). So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q24. The extra stretch of points in pro-insulin that is removed during maturation is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Pro-insulin contains an additional connecting peptide called the C‑peptide, which links the A and B chains. During maturation, the C‑peptide is enzymatically cleaved to yield the active two‑chain insulin molecule.
Q25. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Bt-Cotton'? (i) Resistant to insect pests. (ii) Cultivated in some states of India. (iii) Created by introducing B. thuringiensis toxin genes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bt cotton is resistant to bollworms (i), is grown in several Indian states (ii), and was created by introducing Bt toxin genes (iii). All statements are correct.
Q26. The gene cryIAc and cryIIAb are used to control:
Correct Answer: (c)
CryIAc and CryIIAb are specific Cry proteins that are effective against lepidopteran pests like cotton bollworms. These genes have been introduced into Bt cotton to provide resistance against bollworm infestation.
Q27. Identify the correct phylum/technique being described? (i) It involves identification of RNA as 'Expressed Sequence Tags'. (ii) It can also use the 'blind approach' of sequence annotation. (iii) Commonly used vectors are BAC and YAC.
Correct Answer: (a)
The Human Genome Project used expressed sequence tags (ESTs) for gene identification, employed the 'blind approach' for sequencing, and used BAC/YAC vectors for cloning large DNA fragments. This matches the description.
Q28. Assertion: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of genes in disease.
Reason: Transgenic models exist for cancer, cystic fibrosis and Alzheimer's.
Correct Answer: (a)
Transgenic animals are created to carry disease‑related genes or mutations, allowing researchers to study disease progression and test potential therapies. The existence of models for cancer, cystic fibrosis, and Alzheimer's demonstrates this application, and the reason correctly supports the assertion.
Q29. Regarding 'ADA Deficiency', which statements are true? (i) Deletion of the gene for ADA causes the disorder. (ii) ADA is crucial for the respiratory system to function. (iii) First clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl.
Correct Answer: (a)
ADA deficiency is caused by a defective ADA gene (i true). ADA is critical for the immune system, not respiratory (ii false). The first gene therapy was in 1990 for a 4‑year‑old girl (iii true). So (i) and (iii) are true.
Q30. Which of the following are benefits of GM plants mentioned in the text? (i) Increased tolerance to abiotic stresses. (ii) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides. (iii) Enhanced nutritional value (e.g. Golden rice). (iv) Increased efficiency of mineral usage.
Correct Answer: (a)
GM plants offer multiple benefits: tolerance to abiotic stress (cold, drought, salt), reduced pesticide use, enhanced nutrition (Golden rice), and improved mineral use efficiency. All statements are correct.
Q31. Which of the following are correct regarding 'Pest Resistant Plants'? (i) Meloidogyne incognita infects tobacco roots. (ii) RNAi involves mRNA silencing. (iii) Sense and anti-sense RNA are produced in host cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Meloidogyne incognita is a root‑knot nematode that infects tobacco (i true). RNAi silences specific mRNA (ii true). In the nematode‑resistant strategy, both sense and antisense RNA are produced to form dsRNA (iii true). All statements are correct.
Q32. Regarding 'Molecular Diagnosis', identify the correct statements: (i) PCR can detect very low concentrations of pathogens. (ii) ELISA is based on antigen-antibody interaction. (iii) Conventional methods like serum analysis allow early detection.
Correct Answer: (a)
PCR can detect minute amounts of pathogen nucleic acid (i true). ELISA relies on antigen‑antibody binding (ii true). Conventional methods do not allow early detection (iii false). So (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q33. Match the cry gene with the pest it controls:
Column-I (Gene)
Column-II (Pest)
A. cryIAc
(I) Corn borer
B. cryIAb
(II) Cotton bollworm
Correct Answer: (a)
CryIAc is effective against cotton bollworms (II), while CryIAb specifically targets corn borer (I). Therefore the correct pairing is A–II, B–I.
Q34. Assertion: RNAi is a method of cellular defense in eukaryotes.
Reason: It involves silencing of specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA.
Correct Answer: (a)
RNAi serves as an antiviral and transposon‑silencing defense mechanism. The presence of dsRNA (often from viral replication) triggers sequence‑specific degradation of homologous mRNA, thereby protecting the cell by preventing translation of foreign genetic material.
Q35. Assertion: India has one of the richest diversities of rice in the world.
Reason: There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone.
Correct Answer: (a)
India is indeed a centre of rice diversity, with thousands of traditional varieties. The huge number of documented varieties (roughly 200,000 in India) provides strong evidence for this rich diversity, making the reason a correct explanation.
Q36. The gene cryIAb is specifically used to control:
Correct Answer: (b)
CryIAb is effective against the European corn borer and other lepidopteran pests that attack maize. It is one of the most widely used Bt genes in transgenic corn (Bt corn) for pest management.
Q37. Match the terms in Column-I with their descriptions in Column-II:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Totipotency
(I) Genetically identical plants
B. Somaclones
(II) Capacity to generate whole plant from a cell
C. Explant
(III) Part of plant taken for tissue culture
Correct Answer: (a)
Totipotency is the ability to regenerate a whole plant (II). Somaclones are genetically identical plants (I). An explant is the tissue piece used for culture (III). Thus the correct matching is A–II, B–I, C–III.
Q38. Match the transgenic animal product with the disease/use:
Column-I (Product)
Column-II (Target)
A. $\alpha$-1-antitrypsin
(I) Treatment of PKU
B. Human alpha-lactalbumin
(II) Treatment of emphysema
C. Transgenic mice
(III) Vaccine safety testing
D. Rosie's milk
(IV) Enriched human baby food
Correct Answer: (a)
α‑1‑Antitrypsin is used for emphysema (II). Human alpha‑lactalbumin enriches milk for baby food (IV). Transgenic mice are used in vaccine safety testing (III). Rosie's milk (containing alpha‑lactalbumin) also relates to enriched baby food (IV). So A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–IV is the correct matching.
Q39. Which company first prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin in 1983?
Correct Answer: (b)
Eli Lilly, an American pharmaceutical company, was the first to produce human insulin using recombinant DNA technology in 1983. They separately expressed the A and B chains in E. coli and then combined them to form active insulin.
Q40. Which of the following is correct? (i) Biotechnology products brought qualitative improvement in health. (ii) Downstream processing includes purification. (iii) Indian parliament cleared the second amendment of Patent Bill.
Correct Answer: (a)
Biotechnology has improved healthcare quality (i). Downstream processing involves purification (ii). The Indian Parliament cleared the second Patent Bill amendment in 2005 (iii). Thus all statements are correct.
Q41. Assertion: ADA deficiency can be permanently cured using bone marrow transplantation.
Reason: Bone marrow cells are immortal and produce ADA throughout life.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bone marrow transplantation for ADA deficiency is not a permanent cure because lymphocytes and bone marrow cells are not immortal; they have a limited lifespan and may not provide lifelong enzyme production. Moreover, the assertion that it can be permanently cured is false unless gene therapy is applied at the embryonic stage.
Q42. Assertion: ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
Reason: It is a technique used for early molecular diagnosis of pathogens.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both statements are true: ELISA relies on specific antigen‑antibody binding, and it is used for early diagnosis. However, the reason does not explain the assertion—the principle is biochemical interaction, while the reason describes its application, not the basis of the technique.
Q43. Which part of an infected plant is free of virus and can be used to recover healthy plants?
Correct Answer: (c)
The apical and axillary meristems are typically virus-free even in an infected plant because viruses do not easily invade the rapidly dividing meristematic cells. Culturing meristem tissue allows production of virus‑free plants, a common application of tissue culture.
Q44. Match the following diagnostic techniques with their basis:
Technique
Basis
A. PCR
(I) Amplification of nucleic acids
B. ELISA
(II) Antigen-antibody interaction
Correct Answer: (a)
PCR amplifies DNA/RNA sequences (I). ELISA detects antigens via antibody binding (II). The correct match is A–I, B–II.
Q45. A probe used in molecular diagnosis is a single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a:
Correct Answer: (c)
Molecular probes are single‑stranded nucleic acid fragments (DNA or RNA) that are labelled with a detectable marker, such as a radioactive isotope, fluorescent dye, or enzyme. They hybridise to complementary target sequences, allowing detection of specific genes or pathogens.
Q46. In India, how many recombinant therapeutics are presently being marketed?
Correct Answer: (b)
In India, 12 recombinant therapeutics are currently available for clinical use. This includes products like recombinant human insulin, erythropoietin, and hepatitis B vaccine, reflecting the country's growing biopharmaceutical industry.
Q47. Which statements regarding transgenic animals are correct? (i) 95% are mice. (ii) Used to study gene regulation. (iii) Can be used to test chemical safety. (iv) Rosie was a transgenic sheep.
Correct Answer: (a)
Over 95% of transgenic animals are mice (i true). They are used to study gene regulation (ii true) and for chemical safety testing (iii true). Rosie was a transgenic cow, not a sheep (iv false). So (i), (ii), (iii) are correct.
Q48. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a patient with a deficiency of:
Correct Answer: (c)
The first approved gene therapy trial was for adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency, a severe combined immunodeficiency. In 1990, a 4‑year‑old girl received genetically modified lymphocytes carrying a functional ADA gene.
Q49. Which Indian organization makes decisions regarding the validity of GM research?
Correct Answer: (c)
The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is the Indian regulatory body responsible for assessing the safety and validity of research and release of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) and products.
Q50. Assertion: Recombinant therapeutics induce strong immunological responses.
Reason: They are isolated from non-human sources.
Correct Answer: (c)
The assertion is false because recombinant therapeutics are engineered to be identical to human proteins, so they generally do not provoke strong immune reactions. The reason is true (they are produced in non‑human host systems), but it does not support the false assertion.
Q51. Identify correct features of 'Somaclones': (i) Produced through tissue culture. (ii) Genetically identical to original plant. (iii) Example includes tomato and banana.
Correct Answer: (a)
Somaclones are generated by tissue culture (i true) and are genetically identical to the parent (ii true). Examples include tomato and banana (iii true). So all statements are correct.
Q52. What percentage of all existing transgenic animals are mice?
Correct Answer: (c)
Over 95% of transgenic animals are mice, because they are easy to manipulate genetically, have a short generation time, and are widely used as models for human diseases and basic research.
Q53. The Bt toxin is activated in the insect's gut due to:
Correct Answer: (b)
The Bt toxin is produced as an inactive protoxin. When ingested by an insect, the alkaline pH of the midgut solubilises and proteolytically cleaves the protoxin into an active toxin that binds to gut epithelial receptors.
Q54. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant is known as:
Correct Answer: (c)
Totipotency is the ability of a single cell to divide and develop into a complete organism. In plants, any living cell (e.g., from root, leaf, or meristem) can be cultured to regenerate a whole plant, making totipotency the basis of tissue culture techniques.
Q55. Assertion: Bt toxin does not kill the Bacillus bacterium.
Reason: The Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxins in the bacterium.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bt toxin is stored as an inactive crystalline protoxin inside the bacterium. This inactive form is harmless to Bacillus itself; it is only activated in the alkaline environment of the insect midgut, so the bacterium is not killed.
Q56. A 'Pomato' is produced through:
Correct Answer: (b)
A pomato is a somatic hybrid obtained by fusing protoplasts from tomato and potato plants. This fusion combines the genomes of both species, unlike micro‑propagation (cloning) or grafting, which do not produce true hybrids at the cellular level.
Q57. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Bt Toxin'? (i) Produced by Bacillus thuringiensis. (ii) Exists as active toxin in the bacterium. (iii) Activated by alkaline pH in the insect gut. (iv) Creates pores in the midgut epithelial cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis (i). It is stored as an inactive protoxin (ii is false). The alkaline pH of the insect midgut activates it (iii), and the active toxin creates pores in the epithelial cells (iv). So (i), (iii), (iv) are correct.
Q58. Match the rice variety count:
Region
Variety count
A. India (total rice)
(I) 200,000
B. India (Basmati)
(II) 27 documented
Correct Answer: (a)
India has an estimated 200,000 rice varieties overall (I), but only 27 documented Basmati varieties (II). The correct matching is A–I, B–II.
Q59. Which technique is routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients?
Correct Answer: (c)
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is used to amplify viral DNA or RNA from patient samples, enabling early detection of HIV even when antibody levels are low. This molecular method is far more sensitive than conventional serological tests.
Q60. Regarding the 'Human Protein' alpha-1-antitrypsin: (i) Produced by transgenic animals. (ii) Used to treat emphysema. (iii) Similar attempts for PKU treatment.
Correct Answer: (a)
Transgenic animals produce human α‑1‑antitrypsin (i), which is used to treat emphysema (ii). Similar approaches are being explored for PKU (iii). All statements are correct.
Q61. Assertion: The Green Revolution was not enough to feed the growing human population.
Reason: For farmers in the developing world, agrochemicals are often too expensive.
Correct Answer: (a)
The Green Revolution increased yields through high‑yielding varieties and agrochemicals, but its gains have plateaued. The high cost of chemical inputs makes them inaccessible to many small‑scale farmers, limiting widespread adoption and contributing to food insecurity.
Q62. Golden rice is a transgenic variety rich in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Golden rice has been genetically engineered to produce β‑carotene, a precursor of vitamin A, in the endosperm. This helps combat vitamin A deficiency in populations that rely heavily on rice as a staple food.
Q63. Identify the correct statements regarding RNAi: (i) It is a method of cellular defense in all eukaryotes. (ii) It involves silencing of specific tRNA. (iii) Uses Agrobacterium vectors to introduce genes. (iv) Results in the production of dsRNA in host cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
RNAi is a eukaryotic defense mechanism (i). It silences mRNA, not tRNA (ii false). Agrobacterium vectors can deliver genes that produce dsRNA (iii), and host cells produce dsRNA that triggers silencing (iv). So (i), (iii), (iv) are correct.
Q64. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Protoxins'? (i) They are inactive. (ii) Solubilised by alkaline pH in insect gut. (iii) Present in B. thuringiensis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Protoxins are inactive (i). They become soluble and activated in the alkaline insect gut (ii). They are produced by B. thuringiensis (iii). So all statements are correct.
Q65. Which of the following describes the 'Hatch and Slack Pathway' correctly? (Note: Context is Chapter 10 summary reference) (i) It is a cyclic process. (ii) Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP. (iii) Mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO.
Correct Answer: (c)
The Hatch‑Slack (C4) pathway is not cyclic; it is a linear process of CO2 fixation (i false). The primary acceptor is PEP (ii true). Mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO; it is present in bundle sheath cells (iii true). So (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Q66. How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use worldwide?
Correct Answer: (b)
As of the latest data, about 30 recombinant therapeutic proteins (including insulin, growth hormone, and interferons) have been approved globally. These are produced using genetically engineered microorganisms or cell lines.
Q67. Assertion: Transgenic mice are being developed to test vaccine safety.
Reason: If successful, they could replace the use of monkeys for testing vaccine batches.
Correct Answer: (a)
Transgenic mice are being engineered to express human receptors or immune components, making them suitable for vaccine safety testing. This could reduce or replace the need for primate testing, which is costly and raises ethical concerns.
Q68. Match the insect group with the target pest controlled by Bt toxin:
Column-I (Order)
Column-II (Example)
A. Lepidopterans
(I) Beetles
B. Coleopterans
(II) Tobacco budworm, armyworm
C. Dipterans
(III) Flies, mosquitoes
Correct Answer: (a)
Lepidopterans (butterflies, moths) include tobacco budworm and armyworm (II). Coleopterans (beetles) are represented by beetles (I). Dipterans (flies, mosquitoes) match with flies, mosquitoes (III). Hence A–II, B–I, C–III.
Q69. Match the following GM benefits:
Benefit
Example
A. Tolerance to stress
(I) Cold, drought, salt
B. Enhanced nutrition
(II) Golden rice
C. Post-harvest loss
(III) Reduced losses
Correct Answer: (a)
Stress tolerance includes resistance to cold, drought, and salt (I). Enhanced nutrition is exemplified by Golden rice (II). Post‑harvest loss reduction is a general benefit (III). Thus A–I, B–II, C–III.
Q70. Which are correct for 'ELISA'? (i) Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay. (ii) based on antigen-antibody interaction. (iii) used to detect antigens like proteins.
Correct Answer: (a)
ELISA stands for Enzyme‑Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay (i), it is based on antigen‑antibody interaction (ii), and it is used to detect antigens such as proteins (iii). All statements are correct.
Q71. Identify correct facts for 'Golden Rice': (i) It is a genetically modified crop. (ii) It contains enriched Vitamin A. (iii) It was created to reduce reliance on pesticides.
Correct Answer: (a)
Golden rice is a GM crop (i true) engineered to produce β‑carotene (vitamin A precursor) (ii true). Its purpose is nutritional enhancement, not pesticide reduction (iii false). Thus (i) and (ii) are correct.
Q72. Regarding 'Downstream Processing', identify the correct statements: (i) Includes separation and purification. (ii) Requires strict quality control testing. (iii) Formulation includes preservatives.
Correct Answer: (a)
Downstream processing covers separation, purification (i), quality control (ii), and formulation with preservatives (iii). All these steps are essential to produce a safe and effective biopharmaceutical. All statements are correct.
Q73. Assertion: Meristem culture is used to obtain virus-free plants.
Reason: The apical and axillary meristems are always infected with viruses in a diseased plant.
Correct Answer: (a)
The assertion is correct: meristem culture effectively eliminates viruses because meristematic regions are typically virus‑free, even in infected plants. The reason is false because meristems are not infected; they remain free of viral particles due to rapid cell division and lack of vascular connections.
Q74. The human protein used to treat emphysema is:
Correct Answer: (b)
α‑1‑Antitrypsin is a protease inhibitor that protects lung tissue from elastase. Deficiency of this protein leads to emphysema; transgenic animals have been developed to produce human α‑1‑antitrypsin for therapeutic use.
Q75. Assertion: Traditional breeding is always superior to genetic engineering.
Reason: It allows for the selection of only desired genes without any risks.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both the assertion and the reason are false. Traditional breeding is not always superior; it is slower and often introduces undesirable traits along with desired ones. Moreover, it does not allow precise selection of individual genes without associated risks.
Q76. Plants grown through tissue culture which are genetically identical to the original plant are called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Somaclones are plantlets produced via tissue culture that are exact genetic copies of the parent plant. They are not genetically modified organisms (GMOs) or hybrids; they simply retain the original genotype through asexual propagation.