Correct Answer: (a)
Structure of insulin from Page 5/6.
Q2. In India, how many recombinant therapeutics are presently being marketed?
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 5 states that in India, 12 of these are presently being marketed.
Q3. Assertion: Bt toxin does not kill the Bacillus bacterium.
Reason: The Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxins in the bacterium.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 3 clarifies that it is inactive until it reaches an alkaline environment.
Q4. Rosie, the first transgenic cow, produced milk enriched with:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 8 states Rosie's milk contained human alpha-lactalbumin.
Q5. RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 4 states RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
Q6. Assertion: RNAi is a method of cellular defense in eukaryotes.
Reason: It involves silencing of specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA.
Correct Answer: (a)
The mechanism of silencing defines its role as a defense against viral/transposon RNA (Page 4).
Q7. Which of the following is correct regarding human insulin production? (i) Insulin consists of two chains linked by hydrogen bonds. (ii) Eli Lilly produced it in 1983 using E. coli plasmids. (iii) Pro-insulin contains a C-peptide that is removed during maturation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (i) is false; chains are linked by disulphide bonds, not hydrogen bonds.
Q8. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Bt Toxin'? (i) Produced by Bacillus thuringiensis. (ii) Exists as active toxin in the bacterium. (iii) Activated by alkaline pH in the insect gut. (iv) Creates pores in the midgut epithelial cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (ii) is false; it exists as an inactive protoxin in the bacterium.
Q9. Assertion: ADA deficiency can be permanently cured using bone marrow transplantation.
Reason: Bone marrow cells are immortal and produce ADA throughout life.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 6 states bone marrow/lymphocytes are not immortal, so it's not a permanent cure unless done at early embryonic stages.
Q10. Match the organizations/terms with their context:
Column-I
Column-II
A. GEAC
(I) Unauthorised use of bio-resources
B. Biopiracy
(II) Committee for GM research safety
C. CDRI
(III) Development of 'Saheli'
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard organizations and terms from the text.
Q11. Which are correct for 'ADA Gene Therapy'? (i) Uses retroviral vectors. (ii) Function ADA cDNA is introduced into lymphocytes. (iii) Cells are returned to the patient.
Correct Answer: (a)
Procedure from Page 6.
Q12. Select correct statements for 'GEAC': (i) Stands for Genetic Engineering Approval Committee. (ii) Makes decisions on GM research validity. (iii) It is an international body under WHO.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; it is set up by the Indian Government (Page 8).
Q13. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Protoxins'? (i) They are inactive. (ii) Solubilised by alkaline pH in insect gut. (iii) Present in B. thuringiensis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Mechanism of Bt action (Page 3).
Q14. Plants grown through tissue culture which are genetically identical to the original plant are called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 2 states that plants genetically identical to the original are called somaclones.
Q15. Which technique is routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients?
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 7 states PCR is routinely used to detect HIV.
Q16. A 'Pomato' is produced through:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 3 mentions pomato as a result of somatic hybridisation between tomato and potato protoplasts.
Q17. The extra stretch of points in pro-insulin that is removed during maturation is:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 6 states the C peptide is not present in mature insulin and is removed during maturation.
Q18. Match the terms in Column-I with their descriptions in Column-II:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Totipotency
(I) Genetically identical plants
B. Somaclones
(II) Capacity to generate whole plant from a cell
C. Explant
(III) Part of plant taken for tissue culture
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions from Page 2.
Q19. Which of the following describes the 'Hatch and Slack Pathway' correctly? (Note: Context is Chapter 10 summary reference) (i) It is a cyclic process. (ii) Primary CO2 acceptor is PEP. (iii) Mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO.
Correct Answer: (a)
Details from Page 16 (Hatch and Slack / C4 section).
Q20. Match the following diagnostic techniques with their basis:
Technique
Basis
A. PCR
(I) Amplification of nucleic acids
B. ELISA
(II) Antigen-antibody interaction
Correct Answer: (a)
Principles from Page 7.
Q21. Match the transgenic animal product with the disease/use:
Column-I (Product)
Column-II (Target)
A. $\alpha$-1-antitrypsin
(I) Treatment of PKU
B. Human alpha-lactalbumin
(II) Treatment of emphysema
C. Transgenic mice
(III) Vaccine safety testing
D. Rosie's milk
(IV) Enriched human baby food
Correct Answer: (a)
Note: Rosie's milk contains alpha-lactalbumin for human babies (Page 8).
Q22. Assertion: ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
Reason: It is a technique used for early molecular diagnosis of pathogens.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true, but the principle of interaction is its biochemical basis, while diagnosis is its application.
Q23. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell or explant is known as:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 2 defines totipotency as the capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant.
Q24. A probe used in molecular diagnosis is a single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 7 defines a probe as a single stranded DNA/RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule.
Q25. Match the cry gene with the pest it controls:
Column-I (Gene)
Column-II (Pest)
A. cryIAc
(I) Corn borer
B. cryIAb
(II) Cotton bollworm
Correct Answer: (a)
Specificity of cry genes from Page 4.
Q26. Which of the following is correct regarding 'Bt-Cotton'? (i) Resistant to insect pests. (ii) Cultivated in some states of India. (iii) Created by introducing B. thuringiensis toxin genes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 10.1 (Page 3).
Q27. Regarding 'Biopiracy', select the correct statements: (i) Use of bio-resources by MNCs without authorisation. (ii) Lack of compensatory payment to the source country. (iii) Most industrialised nations are rich in traditional knowledge.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; industrialised nations are often poor in biodiversity and traditional knowledge (Page 9).
Q28. How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use worldwide?
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 5 states that about 30 recombinant therapeutics have been approved worldwide.
Q29. Biopiracy is the use of bio-resources by multinational companies without:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 9 defines biopiracy as use without proper authorisation and compensatory payment.
Q30. Assertion: Many transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of genes in disease.
Reason: Transgenic models exist for cancer, cystic fibrosis and Alzheimer's.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 7 states these models are made to investigate new treatments.
Q31. Identify correct features of 'RNA Interference': (i) Method of cellular defense. (ii) silences specific mRNA. (iii) uses double stranded RNA (dsRNA).
Correct Answer: (a)
Principles from Page 4.
Q32. Which of the following are correct regarding 'Pest Resistant Plants'? (i) Meloidogyne incognita infects tobacco roots. (ii) RNAi involves mRNA silencing. (iii) Sense and anti-sense RNA are produced in host cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section on pest resistant plants (Page 4).
Q33. Identify correct facts for 'Golden Rice': (i) It is a genetically modified crop. (ii) It contains enriched Vitamin A. (iii) It was created to reduce reliance on pesticides.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; its goal is nutritional enhancement, not pesticide resistance.
Q34. Assertion: Pro-insulin contains an extra stretch called C peptide.
Reason: C peptide is essential for the biological activity of mature insulin.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 6 states C peptide is not present in mature insulin and is removed.
Q35. Match the following GM benefits:
Benefit
Example
A. Tolerance to stress
(I) Cold, drought, salt
B. Enhanced nutrition
(II) Golden rice
C. Post-harvest loss
(III) Reduced losses
Correct Answer: (a)
Table of GMO benefits from Page 3.
Q36. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a patient with a deficiency of:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 6 states the first clinical gene therapy was for ADA deficiency.
Q37. What percentage of all existing transgenic animals are mice?
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 7 states over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Q38. Regarding 'Downstream Processing', identify the correct statements: (i) Includes separation and purification. (ii) Requires strict quality control testing. (iii) Formulation includes preservatives.
Correct Answer: (a)
Comprehensive list from Page 15.
Q39. Assertion: Traditional breeding is always superior to genetic engineering.
Reason: It allows for the selection of only desired genes without any risks.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 1 and 2 highlight that traditional breeding is slow and often includes undesirable genes.
Q40. The human protein used to treat emphysema is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 8 mentions $\alpha$-1-antitrypsin is used to treat emphysema.
Q41. The Bt toxin is activated in the insect's gut due to:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 3 explains the toxin is converted to an active form due to the alkaline pH of the gut.
Q42. Regarding 'Molecular Diagnosis', identify the correct statements: (i) PCR can detect very low concentrations of pathogens. (ii) ELISA is based on antigen-antibody interaction. (iii) Conventional methods like serum analysis allow early detection.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; conventional methods do not allow early detection (Page 6-7).
Q43. Assertion: Recombinant therapeutics induce strong immunological responses.
Reason: They are isolated from non-human sources.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 5 states recombinant therapeutics do not induce unwanted immunological responses because they are identical to human proteins.
Q44. Which are correct for 'Bioreactors'? (i) Use microbial, plant, animal or human cells. (ii) Provide optimal growth conditions (temp, pH, oxygen). (iii) Usually process small volumes like 1-5 litres.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is false; they process large volumes like 100-1000 litres (Page 14).
Q45. Match the rice variety count:
Region
Variety count
A. India (total rice)
(I) 200,000
B. India (Basmati)
(II) 27 documented
Correct Answer: (a)
Data from Page 9.
Q46. Which statements regarding transgenic animals are correct? (i) 95% are mice. (ii) Used to study gene regulation. (iii) Can be used to test chemical safety. (iv) Rosie was a transgenic sheep.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iv) is false; Rosie was a transgenic cow.
Q47. Regarding 'Basmati Rice': (i) 27 documented varieties in India. (ii) Unique aroma and flavor. (iii) US patent 1997 claimed Indian varieties as novelty.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 10.4 (Page 9).
Q48. Assertion: In RNAi, the source of complementary RNA can be from transposons.
Reason: Transposons are mobile genetic elements that replicate via an RNA intermediate.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 4 correctly links the source of dsRNA to the nature of transposons.
Q49. Golden rice is a transgenic variety rich in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 3 describes golden rice as Vitamin 'A' enriched rice.
Q50. Assertion: Transgenic mice are being developed to test vaccine safety.
Reason: If successful, they could replace the use of monkeys for testing vaccine batches.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 8 explains the goal of using mice for vaccine safety (e.g., polio).
Q51. Which of the following is correct? (i) Biotechnology products brought qualitative improvement in health. (ii) Downstream processing includes purification. (iii) Indian parliament cleared the second amendment of Patent Bill.
Correct Answer: (a)
General facts from Page 1, 15, and 9.
Q52. Which of the following is NOT one of the three critical research areas of biotechnology?
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 1 lists the three critical research areas: catalyst, optimal conditions, and downstream processing.
Q53. Assertion: The Green Revolution was not enough to feed the growing human population.
Reason: For farmers in the developing world, agrochemicals are often too expensive.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 2 explains the limitations of the Green Revolution including the high cost of chemicals.
Q54. Match the insect group with the target pest controlled by Bt toxin:
Column-I (Order)
Column-II (Example)
A. Lepidopterans
(I) Beetles
B. Coleopterans
(II) Tobacco budworm, armyworm
C. Dipterans
(III) Flies, mosquitoes
Correct Answer: (a)
Classification from Page 3.
Q55. Match the following for ADA deficiency:
S.No.
Cure Method
A. Bone marrow transplantation
(I) Not completely curative
B. Enzyme replacement
(II) Not completely curative
C. Gene therapy (embryonic)
(III) Permanent cure
Correct Answer: (a)
Effectiveness of ADA treatments from Page 6.
Q56. Identify the correct phylum/technique being described? (i) It involves identification of RNA as 'Expressed Sequence Tags'. (ii) It can also use the 'blind approach' of sequence annotation. (iii) Commonly used vectors are BAC and YAC.
Correct Answer: (a)
These are the methodologies of the Human Genome Project (Page 103/Unit reference).
Q57. Assertion: In 1997, an American company got patent rights on Basmati rice.
Reason: This 'new' variety was actually derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
Correct Answer: (a)
The theft/derivation from traditional varieties is the core of the ethical/legal issue (Page 9).
Q58. Identify true statements for 'Transgenic Rosie': (i) First transgenic cow (1997). (ii) Produced human protein-enriched milk. (iii) Milk contained 2.4 grams protein per litre.
Correct Answer: (a)
Details from Page 8.
Q59. Which company first prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human insulin in 1983?
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 6 identifies the American company Eli Lilly.
Q60. The nematode that infects the roots of tobacco plants is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 4 identifies the nematode as Meloidogyne incognita.
Q61. Match the medical application with its primary goal:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Gene therapy
(I) Early detection of pathogen
B. PCR
(II) Correcting a defective gene
C. ELISA
(III) Antigen-antibody interaction detection
Correct Answer: (a)
Functions from Page 6 and 7.
Q62. Which part of an infected plant is free of virus and can be used to recover healthy plants?
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 2 states that even if a plant is infected with a virus, the meristem is free of virus.
Q63. Identify correct features of 'Somaclones': (i) Produced through tissue culture. (ii) Genetically identical to original plant. (iii) Example includes tomato and banana.
Correct Answer: (a)
Section 13.1.1 (Page 2).
Q64. Which are correct for 'ELISA'? (i) Enzyme Linked Immuno-sorbent Assay. (ii) based on antigen-antibody interaction. (iii) used to detect antigens like proteins.
Correct Answer: (a)
Principles from Page 7.
Q65. Regarding 'ADA Deficiency', which statements are true? (i) Deletion of the gene for ADA causes the disorder. (ii) ADA is crucial for the respiratory system to function. (iii) First clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year-old girl.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (ii) is false; ADA is crucial for the immune system.
Q66. Which Indian organization makes decisions regarding the validity of GM research?
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 8 states GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee) makes these decisions.
Q67. Regarding the 'Human Protein' alpha-1-antitrypsin: (i) Produced by transgenic animals. (ii) Used to treat emphysema. (iii) Similar attempts for PKU treatment.
Correct Answer: (a)
Medical applications from Page 8.
Q68. Which of the following are benefits of GM plants mentioned in the text? (i) Increased tolerance to abiotic stresses. (ii) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides. (iii) Enhanced nutritional value (e.g. Golden rice). (iv) Increased efficiency of mineral usage.
Correct Answer: (a)
All listed are direct benefits stated in section 10.1.
Q69. Identify the correct statements regarding RNAi: (i) It is a method of cellular defense in all eukaryotes. (ii) It involves silencing of specific tRNA. (iii) Uses Agrobacterium vectors to introduce genes. (iv) Results in the production of dsRNA in host cells.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (ii) is false; it silences mRNA, not tRNA.
Q70. Assertion: GEAC is an Indian government organization.
Reason: It makes decisions regarding the safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 8 defines the role of GEAC in regulation.
Q71. The gene cryIAb is specifically used to control:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 4 states cryIAb controls corn borer.
Q72. The gene cryIAc and cryIIAb are used to control:
Correct Answer: (c)
Page 4 states cryIAc and cryIIAb control cotton bollworms.
Q73. Assertion: India has one of the richest diversities of rice in the world.
Reason: There are an estimated 200,000 varieties of rice in India alone.
Correct Answer: (a)
The high number of varieties is the evidence for the richness of diversity (Page 9).
Q74. Assertion: Meristem culture is used to obtain virus-free plants.
Reason: The apical and axillary meristems are always infected with viruses in a diseased plant.
Correct Answer: (a)
Page 2 states meristems are free of virus even in infected plants.
Q75. Bt toxin is produced by the bacterium:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 3 states Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis.
Q76. In RNAi, the silencing of a specific mRNA is due to:
Correct Answer: (b)
Page 4 states RNAi involves silencing mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule.
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