Correct Answer: (c)
Human vertebral column has 26 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 1 sacral (fused), and 1 coccygeal (fused).
Q2. Symbiotic association between fungi and algae are called ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Lichens are a mutualistic association between a fungus (mycobiont) and an alga or cyanobacterium (phycobiont).
Q3. Cell theory was formulated by ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Cell theory was proposed by Matthias Schleiden (botanist) and Theodor Schwann (zoologist) in 1838–1839.
Q4. Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? (a) Ribosomes are made of 50S and 30S subunits (b) They can have plasmids (c) They contain mesosome (d) They have peroxisomes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Prokaryotes have 70S ribosomes (50S+30S), plasmids, and mesosomes. Peroxisomes are absent in prokaryotes.
Q5. Which of the following is not a part of human central neural system?
Correct Answer: (d)
Central neural system (CNS) includes brain and spinal cord with meninges (dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater). Pericardium is the membrane covering the heart.
Q6. Mitochondrial inner membrane encloses
Correct Answer: (a)
The inner mitochondrial membrane folds into cristae and encloses the mitochondrial matrix.
Q7. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Cristae
I. Flat membrane sacs in stroma of chloroplast
B. Cisternae
II. Infoldings in mitochondria
C. Thylakoids
III. Cell membrane
D. Phospholipid
IV. Disc shaped sacs in the Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: (b)
Cristae are infoldings of inner mitochondrial membrane (II). Cisternae are disc-shaped sacs in Golgi (IV). Thylakoids are flat sacs in chloroplast stroma (I). Phospholipid is the major component of cell membrane (III).
Q8. The plastid that stores xanthophyll is known as
Correct Answer: (b)
Xanthophylls are carotenoid pigments stored in chromoplasts. (The option 'chloroplast' is a misprint; chromoplast is the correct plastid, but the key marks the second option as correct.)
Q9. Which of the following statements related to pituitary gland are correct? (a) It is divided anatomically into adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis (b) It secretes follicle stimulating hormone (c) It secretes melanocyte stimulating hormone (d) It does not secrete prolactin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Pituitary has adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis; it secretes FSH, MSH (from pars intermedia), and prolactin (so d is false).
Q10. Photorespiration reaction catalyzed by RuBisCo is shown below: RuBP + O2 → 3-Phosphoglycerate + X. Identify 'X' from the given options:
Correct Answer: (b)
RuBisCo oxygenase activity produces 3-phosphoglycerate and 2-phosphoglycolate.
Q11. Mad cow disease is caused by ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Prions are infectious protein particles responsible for transmissible spongiform encephalopathies like mad cow disease (BSE).
Q12. Which pigment has absorption peak at 700 nm in the photosynthetic reaction centre PS I (P700)?
Correct Answer: (b)
Photosystem I reaction centre contains a special pair of chlorophyll a molecules that absorb at 700 nm (P700).
Q13. In water, frogs respire using ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Frogs respire cutaneously (through skin) in water. On land, they use lungs and buccal cavity in addition to skin.
Q14. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of arrangement of bones in the lower limb of humans?
Correct Answer: (c)
The correct sequence from hip to foot: femur (thigh), patella (kneecap), tibia (shin), tarsals (ankle).
Q15. Phyllotaxy is the pattern of arrangement of ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Phyllotaxy refers to the arrangement of leaves on a stem (alternate, opposite, whorled, etc.).
Q16. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Starch
I. Fights infection
B. Antibody
II. Energy storage
C. Concanavalin A
III. Glucose transport
D. Glut-4
IV. Lectin
Correct Answer: (b)
Starch is energy storage; antibody fights infection; Concanavalin A is a lectin; Glut-4 facilitates glucose transport.
Q17. Given below are two statements: Statement I: When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry. Statement II: In phylum Echinodermata, both adults and larvae are radially symmetrical.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I is correct (definition of radial symmetry). Statement II is incorrect because echinoderm larvae are bilaterally symmetrical, while adults are radially symmetrical.
Q18. Endomembrane system includes
Correct Answer: (a)
The endomembrane system includes ER, Golgi, lysosomes, vacuoles (and plasma membrane). Chloroplasts, mitochondria, and peroxisomes are not part of it.
Q19. How many molecules of pyruvic acid are produced at the end of glycolysis from 206 molecules of glucose?
Q20. Which of the following plant growth regulators is used as herbicide?
Correct Answer: (a)
2,4-D (2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid) is a synthetic auxin used as a selective herbicide to kill dicot weeds.
Q21. Given below are two statements: Statement I: In gymnosperms, the male and female gametophytes remain within the sporangia. Statement II: In gymnosperms, seeds are not covered.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Both statements are correct. Gymnosperms have naked seeds (not enclosed in fruit) and the gametophytes develop inside the sporangia.
Q23. Which of the following are characteristic features of Solanaceae family? (a) Flowers are bisexual and actinomorphic (b) Calyx have five sepals and are united (c) Androecium have five stamens and are epipetalous (d) Ovary is inferior
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Solanaceae flowers are bisexual, actinomorphic, calyx with 5 united sepals, androecium with 5 epipetalous stamens; ovary is superior (not inferior).
Q24. Select the correct sequence of experiments that led to a gradual understanding of photosynthesis in green plants.
Correct Answer: (b)
Historical sequence: Priestley (role of air) → Ingenhousz (release of O₂) → later glucose production discovered → absorption spectra of pigments studied.
Q25. The number of action potentials generated by sino-atrial node (SAN) in a healthy human is per minute.
Correct Answer: (b)
The sino-atrial node (natural pacemaker) generates about 70–75 action potentials per minute in a healthy adult at rest.
Q26. How many turns of Calvin cycle are required for the formation of three molecules of glucose?
Correct Answer: (d)
One Calvin cycle fixes one CO₂ molecule. To synthesize one glucose (6C) needs 6 turns. Therefore, 3 glucose need 18 turns.
Q27. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct Answer: (d)
Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin during coagulation. The reverse (fibrin → fibrinogen) does not occur.
Q28. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Family
I. Sapindales
B. Genus
II. Dicotyledonae
C. Class
III. Anacardiaceae
D. Phylum
IV. Angiospermae
E. Order
V. Mangifera
Correct Answer: (d)
Family – Anacardiaceae (III); Genus – Mangifera (V); Class – Dicotyledonae (II); Phylum – Angiospermae (IV); Order – Sapindales (I).
Q29. Arrange the following taxonomic categories in ascending order. (a) Genus (b) Class (c) Order (d) Phylum (e) Family (f) Kingdom (g) Species
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
The ascending hierarchy is: Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class → Phylum → Kingdom.
Correct Answer: (d)
Sphenopsida (horsetails) is a class of pteridophytes.
Q32. Which of the following statements regarding photorespiration are correct? (a) Do not occur in C3 plants (b) CO2 is consumed and O2 is generated (c) Phosphoglycolate is formed (d) No synthesis of ATP and NADPH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Photorespiration occurs in C₃ plants (a false). O₂ is consumed and CO₂ released (b false). Phosphoglycolate is formed (c true). No ATP/NADPH synthesized (d true). So (c) and (d) are correct.
Q33. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: (b)
Smooth ER lacks ribosomes and is the primary site for lipid synthesis, detoxification, and calcium storage.
Q34. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct Answer: (b)
α-cells secrete glucagon, while β-cells secrete insulin. The statement that α-cells secrete insulin is incorrect.
Q35. Genus represents
Correct Answer: (c)
Genus is a taxonomic rank that includes a group of closely related species sharing a common ancestor.
Q36. Which of the following is not a prokaryote?
Correct Answer: (d)
Fungi are eukaryotic organisms (with membrane-bound organelles). Bacteria, blue-green algae (cyanobacteria), and Mycoplasma are prokaryotes.
Q37. Which of the following plant growth regulators promotes internode elongation prior to flowering in cabbage?
Correct Answer: (b)
Gibberellins promote stem elongation (bolting) in rosette plants like cabbage and beet.
Q38. The correct sequence of adult cell cycle phases is
Correct Answer: (c)
The cell cycle proceeds in the order: G₁ (growth) → S (DNA replication) → G₂ (preparation for mitosis) → M (mitosis).
Q39. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Fusion of protoplasm between gametes
I. Meiosis
B. Fusion of two nuclei
II. Plasmogamy
C. Generation of haploid spores
III. Karyogamy
Correct Answer: (a)
Plasmogamy – fusion of protoplasm; Karyogamy – fusion of nuclei; Meiosis – formation of haploid spores.
Q40. Given below are two statements: Statement I: The class name Reptilia refers to creeping or crawling mode of locomotion. Statement II: All organisms belonging to Reptilia have three chambered heart.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I is correct (Reptilia = creeping). Statement II is incorrect because crocodiles have a four-chambered heart; other reptiles have three-chambered.
Q41. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Chromosomes are fully condensed at the end of prophase I. Statement II: Meiosis I resembles mitosis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I is correct (chromosomes fully condensed at end of prophase I). Statement II is false because meiosis I involves reduction division and crossing over, unlike mitosis.
Q42. Which of the following is not a characteristic of chordates?
Correct Answer: (c)
Chordates are characterized by notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits/gills at some stage, and post-anal tail. Absence of gills is not a chordate characteristic.
Q43. Length of the stem at time 0 is 20 cm. The arithmetic growth rate is 30 cm per day. What is the length of the stem at the end of the 7th day?
Q44. Arrange the following elements in descending order of their contribution to percentage weight of the human body. (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon (c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Human body composition by weight: Oxygen (~65%), Carbon (~18%), Hydrogen (~10%), Nitrogen (~3%). So O > C > H > N.
Q45. In frogs, the number of pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain are ______.
Correct Answer: (c)
Frogs have 10 pairs of cranial nerves, whereas humans have 12.
Q46. Which of the following is used as a clot buster?
Correct Answer: (a)
Streptokinase is an enzyme produced by Streptococcus that dissolves blood clots and is used as a clot buster (thrombolytic agent).
Q47. The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut
Correct Answer: (a)
Bt toxin (Cry protein) exists as inactive protoxin. In the alkaline pH of insect midgut, it is solubilized and converted to active toxin.
Q48. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes. Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Down's syndrome is trisomy of chromosome 21 (not absence of X). Turner's syndrome is monosomy X (45,X) – absence of one X, not additional copy. Both statements are incorrect.
Q49. Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted?
Correct Answer: (b)
Tuberculosis is an airborne disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, not an STI. Syphilis, gonorrhoea, and genital warts are STIs.
Q50. Sperm motility is due to
Correct Answer: (a)
Sperm cells are motile due to the whip‑like movement of their flagellum (tail).
Q51. Natural selection can lead to (a) stabilisation (b) genetic drift (c) directional change (d) disruption
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Natural selection can result in stabilising, directional, or disruptive selection. Genetic drift is a separate evolutionary mechanism, not a form of natural selection.
Q52. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :
Correct Answer: (c)
ICSI involves direct injection of a single sperm into the cytoplasm of an ovum to achieve fertilisation.
Q53. Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system?
Correct Answer: (d)
Infundibulum is the funnel‑shaped opening of the fallopian tube in females. Rete testis, epididymis, and vasa efferentia are parts of the male reproductive system.
Q54. Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest. (a) Plants (b) Birds (c) Fishes (d) Invertebrates (e) Mammals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
In Amazon rainforest, species richness order: Invertebrates (highest) > Plants > Fishes > Birds > Mammals.
Q55. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles. Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I is correct (LH surge triggers ovulation). Statement II is incorrect because corpus luteum secretes mainly progesterone, not large amounts of estrogen.
Q56. Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain?
Correct Answer: (c)
Primary consumers are organisms that feed directly on producers (plants), i.e., herbivores.
Q57. A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy‑Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is _______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Frequency of AA = p² = (0.1)² = 0.01 (where p = frequency of allele A).
Q58. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Excess growth hormone
I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney
Q59. The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by ______.
Correct Answer: (b)
The right atrioventricular valve is the tricuspid valve (three cusps). The bicuspid (mitral) valve guards the left AV opening.
Q60. Sponges exchange O2 with CO2 by ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sponges lack specialised respiratory organs; gas exchange occurs by simple diffusion across their body surface (water current brings O₂ and removes CO₂).
Q61. How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Each lobe of a typical anther contains two theca (microsporangia). A bilobed anther thus has four theca in total.
Q62. Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of ______.
Correct Answer: (a)
At the neuromuscular junction, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released, triggering muscle contraction.
Q63. Which of the following statements about lac‑operon is correct?
Correct Answer: (a)
The lac repressor (gene i) is constitutively expressed. Lactose (allolactose) inactivates the repressor, not activates it. Genes z, y, a share a promoter, but i has its own. Galactose is not an inducer.
Q64. Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs?
Correct Answer: (b)
Synergids (present in the egg apparatus) secrete chemotactic substances that guide the pollen tube towards the egg cell.
Q65. Which of the following plant produces non‑albuminous seeds?
Correct Answer: (d)
Pea seeds are non‑albuminous (ex‑albuminous) because the endosperm is consumed during embryo development. Wheat, maize, and barley have albuminous seeds (endosperm persists).
Q66. If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
Correct Answer: (c)
Endosperm is triploid (3n). If 2n = 36, then n = 18, so 3n = 54.
Q67. Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct? (a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes. (b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop. (c) Reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in Henle's loop. (d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
(a) true: descending limb is water‑permeable and electrolyte‑impermeable. (b) true: counter‑current mechanism concentrates urine. (c) false: water and Na⁺ reabsorption occur in different parts; Na⁺ is reabsorbed in ascending limb, water in descending limb, but the combined statement is misleading. (d) true: ascending limb actively or passively transports electrolytes.
Q68. Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebral column from the head to toe?
Correct Answer: (d)
From head to toe: Cervical (neck) → Thoracic (chest) → Lumbar (lower back) → Sacrum (pelvic).
Q69. Which of the following is not evidence for evolution?
Correct Answer: (a)
All options are considered evidence for evolution; however, the question's key marks option (1) as the answer (or ambiguous). Convergent evolution results in analogous structures, which still support evolution by adaptation. The question may have an error.
Q70. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents. Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Statement I is false (modern humans arose in Africa). Statement II is roughly correct (the date of migration or emergence of anatomically modern humans is often cited as ~75,000–100,000 years ago, though more precise dates are older).
Q71. Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per‑capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per‑capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is ______.
Correct Answer: (c)
Birth rate = death rate, so the population size remains constant. After 10 generations, it is still 10 million.
Q72. During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the ______ step.
Correct Answer: (c)
Primers anneal (bind) to complementary sequences on the template DNA during the annealing step of PCR.
Q73. Assertion (A): The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model. Reason (R): Resources are finite.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Logistic growth accounts for carrying capacity due to limited resources, making it more realistic. The reason correctly explains why.
Q74. Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of
Correct Answer: (b)
Placental and marsupial mammals evolved similar forms independently in different continents (e.g., wolf and Tasmanian wolf) – this is convergent evolution.
Q75. Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs? (a) Bone marrow (b) Tonsils (c) Spleen (d) Thymus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Bone marrow and thymus are primary lymphoid organs. Tonsils and spleen are secondary lymphoid organs.
Q76. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta?
Correct Answer: (d)
Placenta secretes hCG, estrogen, progesterone, and other hormones, but not LH. LH is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
Q77. Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA?
Correct Answer: (b)
RNA polymerase II transcribes mRNA (precursor hnRNA) in eukaryotes. Pol I synthesises rRNA, Pol III synthesises tRNA and other small RNAs.
Q78. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA. Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Plasmids are small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules that replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome. Both statements are correct.
Q79. For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes?
Correct Answer: (d)
For a child to have blood group O (genotype ii), both parents must contribute an i allele. Father with IAIB cannot provide i, so an O child is impossible.
Q80. Assertion (A): Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous. Reason (R): Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Human and bat forelimbs have similar bone structure (homologous), and this similarity explains their homology.
Q81. Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in
Correct Answer: (c)
Colostrum is rich in immunoglobulin A (IgA), which provides passive immunity to the newborn.
Q82. Assertion (A): Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced. Reason (R): Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
The introduction of goats led to competition for food; goats out‑competed the tortoises, leading to their extinction. R correctly explains A.
Q83. The covering of ovum at ovulation is
Correct Answer: (c)
At ovulation, the ovum is surrounded by the zona pellucida (a glycoprotein layer) and corona radiata (follicular cells). The zona pellucida is the key covering.
Q84. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Both species are harmed
I. Predation
B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited
Q85. Assertion (A): In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf. Reason (R): Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Tall is dominant to dwarf, so F₁ all tall. The reason correctly explains the observation.
Q86. Assertion (A): In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is for plant cells. Reason (R): Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Lysozyme breaks bacterial cell walls; cellulase breaks plant cell walls. Both are used to disrupt cells for DNA isolation. The reason explains why cell disruption is needed.
Q87. Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post‑surgery patients?
Correct Answer: (c)
Morphine is a potent opioid analgesic and sedative commonly used for severe pain management after surgery.
Q88. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional (b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted (c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
(a) correct: energy flow is unidirectional. (b) correct: energy pyramid is always upright (never inverted). (c) incorrect: it follows the 10% law, not 1%.
Q89. Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium?
Correct Answer: (d)
Fertilization of Plasmodium occurs in the mosquito's gut. Sexual reproduction (formation of zygote) occurs in the mosquito, not in liver or RBCs. Gametocytes are formed in human RBCs.
Q90. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I
List-II
A. Transformation
I. Restriction enzyme
B. Cloning site
II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria
C. Selection
III. Replication
D. Ori
IV. Antibiotic
Correct Answer: (a)
Transformation is the process of introducing recombinant DNA into host cells (II). Cloning site contains restriction enzyme recognition sites (I). Selection is done using antibiotic resistance markers (IV). Ori is the origin of replication (III).