Q1. If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing the whole genome of an organism, followed by assignment of function to different segments, the methodology adopted by him is called as:
Correct Answer: (d)
Sequencing the whole genome and then assigning functions is Sequence Annotation.
Sequencing the whole genome and then assigning functions is Sequence Annotation.
Q2. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Osteoporosis is characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of fractures.
Reason (R): Common cause of osteoporosis is increased levels of estrogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Osteoporosis is caused by **decreased** levels of estrogen, not increased. So Reason is false.
Osteoporosis is caused by **decreased** levels of estrogen, not increased. So Reason is false.
Q3. What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation?
Correct Answer: (c)
In fermentation, less than 7% of the energy in glucose is released.
In fermentation, less than 7% of the energy in glucose is released.
Q4. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Spirogyra | (i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular plant, with highly reduced male or female gametophyte |
| (b) Fern | (ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte |
| (c) Funaria | (iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating with reduced gametophyte called prothallus |
| (d) Cycas | (iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte alternating with partially dependent multicellular sporophyte |
Correct Answer: (a)
Spirogyra (Haplontic - ii), Fern (Haplodiplontic - iii), Funaria (Haplodiplontic - iv), Cycas (Diplontic - i).
Spirogyra (Haplontic - ii), Fern (Haplodiplontic - iii), Funaria (Haplodiplontic - iv), Cycas (Diplontic - i).
Q5. Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses:
Correct Answer: (c)
Chemical synapses are slower than electrical synapses.
Chemical synapses are slower than electrical synapses.
Q6. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect attack due to:
(a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels.
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins in the central layers of stem.
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem.
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers of stem.
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Heartwood is dark and resistant due to deposition of organic compounds (tannins, resins) in central layers (b) and vessel lumens (a).
Heartwood is dark and resistant due to deposition of organic compounds (tannins, resins) in central layers (b) and vessel lumens (a).
Q7. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Pairing of homologous chromosomes (Synapsis) occurs in Prophase I of Meiosis, not Mitosis.
Pairing of homologous chromosomes (Synapsis) occurs in Prophase I of Meiosis, not Mitosis.
Q8. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Arthritis is inflammation of joints. Tetany is low Ca. Myasthenia is autoimmune. Dystrophy is genetic.
Arthritis is inflammation of joints. Tetany is low Ca. Myasthenia is autoimmune. Dystrophy is genetic.
Q9. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Statement I is correct (very small). Statement II is incorrect because Mycoplasma lack a cell wall.
Statement I is correct (very small). Statement II is incorrect because Mycoplasma lack a cell wall.
Q10. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
Correct Answer: (c)
Bees (Hymenoptera) are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects, not moths and butterflies.
Bees (Hymenoptera) are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects, not moths and butterflies.
Q11. Which one of the following statement is not true regarding gel electrophoresis technique ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Blue/White screening uses chromogenic substrates for colonies. In gel electrophoresis, DNA is stained with Ethidium Bromide giving orange bands under UV.
Blue/White screening uses chromogenic substrates for colonies. In gel electrophoresis, DNA is stained with Ethidium Bromide giving orange bands under UV.
Q12. Production of Cucumber has increased manifold in recent years. Application of which of the following phytohormones has resulted in this increased yield as the hormone is known to produce female flowers in the plants:
Correct Answer: (b)
Ethylene promotes femaleness in cucumber, increasing yield.
Ethylene promotes femaleness in cucumber, increasing yield.
Q13. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Ulothrix is a Green Alga (Chlorophyceae) and stores Starch, not Mannitol (which is in Brown Algae).
Ulothrix is a Green Alga (Chlorophyceae) and stores Starch, not Mannitol (which is in Brown Algae).
Q14. Which one of the following statements cannot be connected to Predation ?
Correct Answer: (b)
In Predation, one species benefits (+) and the other is harmed (-). 'Both negatively impacted' refers to Competition.
In Predation, one species benefits (+) and the other is harmed (-). 'Both negatively impacted' refers to Competition.
Q15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Mendel's law of Independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome.
Reason (R): Closely located genes assort independently.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Assertion is correct (Linkage exception). Reason is incorrect (Closely located genes show linkage, not independent assortment).
Assertion is correct (Linkage exception). Reason is incorrect (Closely located genes show linkage, not independent assortment).
Q16. In the taxonomic categories which hierarchical arrangement in ascending order is correct in case of animals ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Option 4 lists the standard hierarchy (Descending rank order). The question asks for 'Correct arrangement'. Option 4 is the correct Linnaean hierarchy.
Option 4 lists the standard hierarchy (Descending rank order). The question asks for 'Correct arrangement'. Option 4 is the correct Linnaean hierarchy.
Q17. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
(e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
(a) is false (Lecithin is phospholipid). (b) is false (Saturated have single bonds). (c), (d), (e) are correct.
(a) is false (Lecithin is phospholipid). (b) is false (Saturated have single bonds). (c), (d), (e) are correct.
Q18. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis characterizes:
Correct Answer: (b)
Recombination nodules appear during the pachytene stage of prophase I and represent the sites where crossing over occurs.
Recombination nodules appear during the pachytene stage of prophase I and represent the sites where crossing over occurs.
Q19. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
Correct Answer: (b)
Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles, including Endoplasmic Reticulum.
Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles, including Endoplasmic Reticulum.
Q20. Match List -I with List -II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Diaphragms | (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation |
| (b) Contraceptive Pills | (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus |
| (c) Intra uterine Devices | (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition |
| (d) Lactational Amenorrhea | (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms |
Correct Answer: (a)
Diaphragms (Cover cervix), Pills (Inhibit ovulation), IUDs (Phagocytosis), Amenorrhea (No menstruation).
Diaphragms (Cover cervix), Pills (Inhibit ovulation), IUDs (Phagocytosis), Amenorrhea (No menstruation).
Q21. Which of the following occurs due to the presence of autosome linked dominant trait ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.
Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.
Q22. Nitrogenous waste is excreted in the form of pellet or paste by :
Correct Answer: (c)
Pavo (Peacock) is a bird and excretes uric acid as a pellet or paste (Uricotelic).
Pavo (Peacock) is a bird and excretes uric acid as a pellet or paste (Uricotelic).
Q23. Which one of the following plants shows vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Pisum sativum (Pea - Fabaceae) has vexillary aestivation and diadelphous (9+1) stamens.
Pisum sativum (Pea - Fabaceae) has vexillary aestivation and diadelphous (9+1) stamens.
Q24. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous
Statement II: Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Cleistogamous flowers do not open, ensuring autogamy. This prevents genetic variation (cross-pollination), which is a disadvantage.
Cleistogamous flowers do not open, ensuring autogamy. This prevents genetic variation (cross-pollination), which is a disadvantage.
Q25. "Girdling Experiment" was performed by Plant Physiologists to identify the plant tissue through which:
Correct Answer: (a)
Girdling removes phloem (bark), showing accumulation of food above the cut, proving phloem transports food.
Girdling removes phloem (bark), showing accumulation of food above the cut, proving phloem transports food.
Q26. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Maize does not show plasticity (heterophylly). Coriander, Buttercup, and Cotton do.
Maize does not show plasticity (heterophylly). Coriander, Buttercup, and Cotton do.
Q27. Which of the following is not a method of ex situ conservation ?
Correct Answer: (a)
National Parks are examples of In-situ conservation (protecting species in their natural habitat).
National Parks are examples of In-situ conservation (protecting species in their natural habitat).
Q28. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles:
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate manner along the different radii.
(b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
(c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
(d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
(e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (a)
Bonus Question: All statements (a) through (e) are factually correct descriptions of vascular bundles in different plant parts. (a) Radial in roots, (b) Closed in monocots, (c) Open in dicots, (d) Endarch in stems, (e) Polyarch in monocot roots.
Bonus Question: All statements (a) through (e) are factually correct descriptions of vascular bundles in different plant parts. (a) Radial in roots, (b) Closed in monocots, (c) Open in dicots, (d) Endarch in stems, (e) Polyarch in monocot roots.
Q29. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin ?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (b) correctly describes the specific process for Genetically Engineered Human Insulin (Eli Lilly). The other statements describe natural insulin or animal insulin issues.
Statement (b) correctly describes the specific process for Genetically Engineered Human Insulin (Eli Lilly). The other statements describe natural insulin or animal insulin issues.
Q30. Transposons can be used during which one of the following ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Transposons are used in RNA interference (Gene silencing) as a source of complementary RNA.
Transposons are used in RNA interference (Gene silencing) as a source of complementary RNA.
Q31. The entire fleet of buses in Delhi were converted to CNG from diesel. In reference to this, which one of the following statements is false ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Diesel engines cannot run on CNG; they require modification/replacement, so the cost of conversion is high.
Diesel engines cannot run on CNG; they require modification/replacement, so the cost of conversion is high.
Q32. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and gizzard ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Crop and Gizzard are characteristic of Birds (Aves). Pavo, Psittacula, and Corvus are birds.
Crop and Gizzard are characteristic of Birds (Aves). Pavo, Psittacula, and Corvus are birds.
Q33. In-situ conservation refers to:
Correct Answer: (d)
In-situ conservation involves protecting the entire ecosystem to protect the species within it.
In-situ conservation involves protecting the entire ecosystem to protect the species within it.
Q34. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of:
Correct Answer: (b)
DNA polymorphism (variation at genetic level) is the basis for genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting.
DNA polymorphism (variation at genetic level) is the basis for genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting.
Q35. Ten E.coli cells with ¹⁵N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing ¹⁴N nucleotide. After 60 minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA totally free from ¹⁵N ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Start: 10 cells (Heavy). 60 mins = 3 gens (20 min/gen). Total cells = 10 * 2^3 = 80. Hybrid cells = 20 (original strands split into 20 cells). Light cells = 80 - 20 = 60.
Start: 10 cells (Heavy). 60 mins = 3 gens (20 min/gen). Total cells = 10 * 2^3 = 80. Hybrid cells = 20 (original strands split into 20 cells). Light cells = 80 - 20 = 60.
Q36. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes
(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis
(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population
(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary
(e) It is initiated at puberty
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Spermatogenesis: differentiation after meiosis (spermiogenesis), continuous meiosis, starts at puberty. Oogenesis: differentiation during meiosis, discontinuous, starts fetal. (b), (c), (e) differentiate them.
Spermatogenesis: differentiation after meiosis (spermiogenesis), continuous meiosis, starts at puberty. Oogenesis: differentiation during meiosis, discontinuous, starts fetal. (b), (c), (e) differentiate them.
Q37. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I is incorrect (threads are Fibrins, not Thrombins). Statement II is correct.
Statement I is incorrect (threads are Fibrins, not Thrombins). Statement II is correct.
Q38. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.
Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect (Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune attack on self cells).
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect (Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune attack on self cells).
Q39. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Cyanobacteria (Blue-green algae) are autotrophic monerans.
Cyanobacteria (Blue-green algae) are autotrophic monerans.
Q40. Match List -I with List - II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Bronchioles | (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue |
| (b) Goblet cell | (ii) Loose Connective Tissue |
| (c) Tendons | (iii) Glandular Tissue |
| (d) Adipose Tissue | (iv) Ciliated Epithelium |
Correct Answer: (d)
Bronchioles (Ciliated), Goblet (Glandular), Tendons (Dense Regular), Adipose (Loose).
Bronchioles (Ciliated), Goblet (Glandular), Tendons (Dense Regular), Adipose (Loose).
Q41. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
Correct Answer: (a)
Ethylene (gaseous hormone) promotes root growth and root hairs.
Ethylene (gaseous hormone) promotes root growth and root hairs.
Q42. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A:
Correct Answer: (d)
Trichoderma polysporum produces Cyclosporin A.
Trichoderma polysporum produces Cyclosporin A.
Q43. If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the chances of her progeny having colour blindness ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Female is Xc Xc. Male's mother was Xc Xc, so Male is Xc Y. Cross: Xc Xc * Xc Y. All daughters (Xc Xc) and all sons (Xc Y) will be color blind. 100%.
Female is Xc Xc. Male's mother was Xc Xc, so Male is Xc Y. Cross: Xc Xc * Xc Y. All daughters (Xc Xc) and all sons (Xc Y) will be color blind. 100%.
Q44. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because Spermiogenesis is the differentiation of Spermatids into Spermatozoa, not from spermatogonia.
Statement I is correct. Statement II is incorrect because Spermiogenesis is the differentiation of Spermatids into Spermatozoa, not from spermatogonia.
Q45. Identify the asexual reproductive structure associated with Penicillium:
Correct Answer: (a)
Penicillium reproduces asexually via Conidia.
Penicillium reproduces asexually via Conidia.
Q46. Which one of the following produces nitrogen fixing nodules on the roots of Alnus ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Frankia produces nitrogen-fixing nodules on non-leguminous plants like Alnus.
Frankia produces nitrogen-fixing nodules on non-leguminous plants like Alnus.
Q47. Match List -I with List -II.
| List-I (Biological Molecules) | List-II (Biological functions) |
|---|---|
| (a) Glycogen | (i) Hormone |
| (b) Globulin | (ii) Biocatalyst |
| (c) Steroids | (iii) Antibody |
| (d) Thrombin | (iv) Storage product |
Correct Answer: (c)
Glycogen (Storage), Globulin (Antibody), Steroids (Hormone), Thrombin (Biocatalyst/Enzyme).
Glycogen (Storage), Globulin (Antibody), Steroids (Hormone), Thrombin (Biocatalyst/Enzyme).
Q48. While explaining interspecific interaction of population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial interaction, (-) sign is assigned for detrimental interaction and (0) for neutral interaction. Which of the following interactions can be assigned (+) for one species and (-) for another species involved in the interaction ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Predation is (+, -).
Predation is (+, -).
Q49. Addition of more solutes in a given solution will :
Correct Answer: (a)
Solutes lower water potential (make it more negative).
Solutes lower water potential (make it more negative).
Q50. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Metacentric chromosome | (i) Centromere situated close to the end forming one extremely short and one very long arms |
| (b) Acrocentric chromosome | (ii) Centromere at the terminal end |
| (c) Sub-metacentric | (iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal arms of chromosomes |
| (d) Telocentric chromosome | (iv) Centromere slightly away from the middle forming one shorter arm and one longer arm |
Correct Answer: (d)
Metacentric (Middle), Acrocentric (Close to end), Sub-metacentric (Away from middle), Telocentric (Terminal).
Metacentric (Middle), Acrocentric (Close to end), Sub-metacentric (Away from middle), Telocentric (Terminal).
Q51. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Correct Answer: (d)
The replacement of notochord by vertebral column distinguishes vertebrates within the chordate phylum, explaining the assertion.
The replacement of notochord by vertebral column distinguishes vertebrates within the chordate phylum, explaining the assertion.
Q52. Which one of the following will accelerate phosphorus cycle ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Phosphorus cycle is sedimentary; weathering of rocks releases phosphates.
Phosphorus cycle is sedimentary; weathering of rocks releases phosphates.
Q53. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a cloning vector ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Presence of multiple recognition sites for the same enzyme within the vector will generate several fragments, complicating gene cloning.
Presence of multiple recognition sites for the same enzyme within the vector will generate several fragments, complicating gene cloning.
Q54. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Cytoplasmic streaming aids the Symplastic pathway, not the Apoplastic pathway.
Cytoplasmic streaming aids the Symplastic pathway, not the Apoplastic pathway.
Q55. Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.
Correct Answer: (c)
Acquired immunity is Pathogen-specific and developed after birth. Innate immunity is non-specific and present at birth.
Acquired immunity is Pathogen-specific and developed after birth. Innate immunity is non-specific and present at birth.
Q56. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the mean character value, leads to:
Correct Answer: (a)
Selection favoring values other than the mean (typically one extreme) leads to Directional change.
Selection favoring values other than the mean (typically one extreme) leads to Directional change.
Q57. In an E.coli strain i gene gets mutated and its product can not bind the inducer molecule. If growth medium is provided with lactose, what will be the outcome?
Correct Answer: (b)
The mutated repressor (super-repressor) cannot bind the inducer (lactose) but still binds the operator, permanently blocking transcription. Thus, z, y, a genes are not transcribed/translated.
The mutated repressor (super-repressor) cannot bind the inducer (lactose) but still binds the operator, permanently blocking transcription. Thus, z, y, a genes are not transcribed/translated.
Q58. XO type of sex determination can be found in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Grasshoppers show XO type sex determination (Males XO, Females XX).
Grasshoppers show XO type sex determination (Males XO, Females XX).
Q59. In the following palindromic base sequences of DNA, which one can be cut easily by particular restriction enzyme ?
Correct Answer: (a)
GAATTC is the recognition site for EcoRI.
GAATTC is the recognition site for EcoRI.
Q60. Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Manganese | (i) Activates the enzyme catalase |
| (b) Magnesium | (ii) Required for pollen germination |
| (c) Boron | (iii) Activates enzymes of respiration |
| (d) Iron | (iv) Functions in splitting of water during photosynthesis |
Correct Answer: (a)
Manganese (Splitting water), Magnesium (Respiration enzymes), Boron (Pollen germination), Iron (Catalase).
Manganese (Splitting water), Magnesium (Respiration enzymes), Boron (Pollen germination), Iron (Catalase).
Q61. Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :
Correct Answer: (b)
Lippes loop is a non-medicated Intrauterine Device (IUD).
Lippes loop is a non-medicated Intrauterine Device (IUD).
Q62. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis:
Correct Answer: (a)
Spindle fibers attach to the **kinetochores**, not directly to the centromere.
Spindle fibers attach to the **kinetochores**, not directly to the centromere.
Q63. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis?
Correct Answer: (a)
Chemiosmosis involves the breakdown of a Proton gradient, not an electron gradient.
Chemiosmosis involves the breakdown of a Proton gradient, not an electron gradient.
Q64. If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the population is ______ individuals per Drosophila per week.
Correct Answer: (d)
Death rate = 8 / 80 = 0.1.
Death rate = 8 / 80 = 0.1.
Q65. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from :
Correct Answer: (b)
Carrageen is obtained from Red Algae (Rhodophyceae like Chondrus crispus).
Carrageen is obtained from Red Algae (Rhodophyceae like Chondrus crispus).
Q66. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence.
Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Both statements are correct. S-II describes the formation of sticky ends.
Both statements are correct. S-II describes the formation of sticky ends.
Q67. Which of the following is present between the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
Correct Answer: (a)
Intervertebral discs are made of Cartilage (Fibrocartilage).
Intervertebral discs are made of Cartilage (Fibrocartilage).
Q68. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Answer: (b)
During joint diastole, AV valves are open and blood flows passively from atria to ventricles.
During joint diastole, AV valves are open and blood flows passively from atria to ventricles.
Q69. The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Electrostatic Precipitators are most efficient at removing particulate matter.
Electrostatic Precipitators are most efficient at removing particulate matter.
Q70. Identify the correct set of statements:
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea
(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves
(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration
(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Statement (a) is incorrect because in Citrus and Bougainvillea, axillary buds (not leaflets) are modified into thorns. All other statements are correct.
Statement (a) is incorrect because in Citrus and Bougainvillea, axillary buds (not leaflets) are modified into thorns. All other statements are correct.
Q71. Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of:
Correct Answer: (b)
The arthropod exoskeleton is made of Chitin.
The arthropod exoskeleton is made of Chitin.
Q72. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆ then what is the formula for maltose ?
Correct Answer: (b)
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 - H2O = C12H22O11.
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 - H2O = C12H22O11.
Q73. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes.
Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (b)
Decomposition is slower (not faster) if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Decomposition is slower (not faster) if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
Q74. What is the role of large bundle shealth cells found around the vascular bundles in C₄ plants ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Large bundle sheath cells contain agranal chloroplasts to perform the Calvin cycle.
Large bundle sheath cells contain agranal chloroplasts to perform the Calvin cycle.
Q75. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect ?
Correct Answer: (a)
DNA replication occurs only once, before Meiosis I. There is no replication before Meiosis II.
DNA replication occurs only once, before Meiosis I. There is no replication before Meiosis II.
Q76. Under normal physiological conditions in human being every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver _________ml of O₂ to the tissues.
Correct Answer: (a)
100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of oxygen to tissues.
100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of oxygen to tissues.
Q77. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:
(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Mustard (b) Gulmohar (c) Cassia (d) Datura (e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Gulmohar and Cassia are zygomorphic. Mustard, Datura, and Chilly are actinomorphic.
Gulmohar and Cassia are zygomorphic. Mustard, Datura, and Chilly are actinomorphic.
Q78. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from:
Correct Answer: (a)
Tegmina (forewings) arise from the Mesothorax.
Tegmina (forewings) arise from the Mesothorax.
Q79. Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for:
Correct Answer: (b)
These are the 'Evil Quartet', the four major causes of biodiversity loss.
These are the 'Evil Quartet', the four major causes of biodiversity loss.
Q80. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the correct set of statements about springwood.
(a) It is also called as the earlywood
(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
(c) It is lighter in colour
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) It is also called as the earlywood
(b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
(c) It is lighter in colour
(d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming annual rings
(e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
(b) is incorrect because springwood has wider vessels.
(b) is incorrect because springwood has wider vessels.
Q81. Which of the following statements is not true ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Flippers of penguins (Birds) and dolphins (Mammals) are Analogous organs (convergent evolution), not homologous.
Flippers of penguins (Birds) and dolphins (Mammals) are Analogous organs (convergent evolution), not homologous.
Q82. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Distances match sequence: a - 5 - c - 15 - b - 9 - d. a-c=5, c-b=15 (a-b=20), b-d=9 (c-d=24, a-d=29).
Distances match sequence: a - 5 - c - 15 - b - 9 - d. a-c=5, c-b=15 (a-b=20), b-d=9 (c-d=24, a-d=29).
Q83. Which of the following functions is not performed by secretions from salivary glands?
Correct Answer: (c)
Salivary amylase digests Starch (polysaccharide), not disaccharides. Disaccharides are digested in the small intestine.
Salivary amylase digests Starch (polysaccharide), not disaccharides. Disaccharides are digested in the small intestine.
Q84. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because:
Correct Answer: (c)
Lymphocytes have a limited lifespan and are not immortal, hence repeated infusions are needed.
Lymphocytes have a limited lifespan and are not immortal, hence repeated infusions are needed.
Q85. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone ?
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Stimulates the process of bone resorption
(b) Decreases Ca²⁺ level in blood
(c) Reabsorption of Ca²⁺ by renal tubules
(d) Decreases the absorption of Ca²⁺ from digested food
(e) Increases metabolism of carbohydrates
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
PTH increases blood Ca2+ (so b is false), increases absorption (so d is false), and has no direct role in carb metabolism (e is false).
PTH increases blood Ca2+ (so b is false), increases absorption (so d is false), and has no direct role in carb metabolism (e is false).
Q86. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier fats is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
This process is called Bio-fortification.
This process is called Bio-fortification.
Q87. What is the net gain of ATP when each molecule of glucose is converted to two molecules of pyruvic acid ?
Correct Answer: (b)
In glycolysis, 4 ATP are produced and 2 are consumed. Net gain is 2 ATP.
In glycolysis, 4 ATP are produced and 2 are consumed. Net gain is 2 ATP.
Q88. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c) Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
(a), (c), and (d) are correct. (b) is incorrect (Heterochromatin is inactive). (e) is incorrect (Nucleosome contains 200 bp).
(a), (c), and (d) are correct. (b) is incorrect (Heterochromatin is inactive). (e) is incorrect (Nucleosome contains 200 bp).
Q89. Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: The primary CO₂ acceptor in C₄ plants is phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll cells.
Statement II: Mesophyll cells of C₄ plants lack RuBisCO enzyme.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
In C4 plants, PEP is the primary acceptor in mesophyll cells (which lack RuBisCO). RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath cells.
In C4 plants, PEP is the primary acceptor in mesophyll cells (which lack RuBisCO). RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath cells.
Q90. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance
Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance
Statement II: Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Both statements accurately describe Mendel's work.
Both statements accurately describe Mendel's work.
Q91. If the length of a DNA molecule is 1.1 metres, what will be the approximate number of base pairs ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Total Length = bp * 0.34nm. 1.1 = N * 0.34e-9. N = 1.1 / 0.34e-9 ≈ 3.3 x 10⁹ bp.
Total Length = bp * 0.34nm. 1.1 = N * 0.34e-9. N = 1.1 / 0.34e-9 ≈ 3.3 x 10⁹ bp.
Q92. The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as :
Correct Answer: (d)
Translation initiation begins when the small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA.
Translation initiation begins when the small ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA.
Q93. Which of the following is not the function of conducting part of respiratory system ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Diffusion occurs in the Respiratory (Exchange) part (Alveoli), not the Conducting part.
Diffusion occurs in the Respiratory (Exchange) part (Alveoli), not the Conducting part.
Q94. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.
Statement II: Particulate matter (PM 2.5) can not be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (c)
Statement I describes an Electrostatic Precipitator, not a Scrubber. Statement II is correct regarding the function of scrubbers vs precipitators.
Statement I describes an Electrostatic Precipitator, not a Scrubber. Statement II is correct regarding the function of scrubbers vs precipitators.
Q95. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?
Correct Answer: (c)
Neuroglia are cells of the Nervous tissue.
Neuroglia are cells of the Nervous tissue.
Q96. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification
Reason (R): The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (a)
Both statements are correct facts, but the selectable marker (R) does not explain why PCR amplifies DNA (A).
Both statements are correct facts, but the selectable marker (R) does not explain why PCR amplifies DNA (A).
Q97. Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called :
Correct Answer: (a)
The physical breakdown of detritus by detritivores is called Fragmentation.
The physical breakdown of detritus by detritivores is called Fragmentation.
Q98. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Label C points to the Thalamus. In false fruits like apple, the thalamus contributes to fruit formation.
Label C points to the Thalamus. In false fruits like apple, the thalamus contributes to fruit formation.
Q99. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Statement I: Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be absorbed into the blood.
Statement II: Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic vessels and ultimately into the blood.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
Correct Answer: (d)
Both statements are correct facts about fat absorption.
Both statements are correct facts about fat absorption.
Q100. At which stage of life the oogenesis process is initiated ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Oogenesis starts during the embryonic development stage in females.
Oogenesis starts during the embryonic development stage in females.