Q1. Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Prolactin is for lactation, not parturition initiation.
Q2. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Fusion of protoplasms is Plasmogamy.
Q3. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
Correct Answer: (b)
Division of centromere occurs during Anaphase II.
Q4. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: (a)
Corpus luteum secretes Relaxin.
Q5. During muscular contraction which of the following events occur? (a) 'H' zone disappears (b) 'A' band widens (c) 'I' band reduces (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Correct Answer: (a)
A-band width remains constant. Other events (H zone disappears, I band reduces, ATP hydrolysis, Z-line pulled) occur.
Q6. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
Correct Answer: (d)
Both are true and R explains A.
Q7. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
Correct Answer: (a)
This process is called Gene therapy.
Q8. Veneral diseases can spread through : (a) Using sterile needles (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person (c) Infected mother to foetus (d) Kissing (e) Inheritance Choose the correct answer from the option given below
Correct Answer: (b)
Blood transfusion and mother to fetus allow spread.
Q9. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine. Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Correct Answer: (c)
AUG codes only for Methionine. AAA/AAG code for Lysine.
Q10. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
Correct Answer: (a)
Chara is monoecious.
Q11. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
Correct Answer: (d)
ADA deficiency leads to Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID).
Q12. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
Correct Answer: (a)
Ethidium bromide stains DNA and fluoresces bright orange under UV light.
Q13. Amensalism can be represented as:
Correct Answer: (d)
Amensalism is an interaction between two organisms of different species in which one species inhibits the growth of other species by secreting certain chemicals. The first species is neither get benefited nor harmed (- 0).
Q14. With regard to insulin choose correct options. (a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide. (c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide (d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges. Choose the correct answer from the options given below
Correct Answer: (c)
(a), (c), (d) are correct. (b) is incorrect.
Q15. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
Correct Answer: (d)
A mature sieve tube element possesses a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a nucleus.
Q16. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Correct Answer: (b)
PCR is used for gene amplification, detection of mutations, and diagnosis. Protein purification is not an application of PCR.
Q17. The production of gametes by the parents, formation of zygotes, the F₁ and F₂ plants, can be understood from a diagram called :
Correct Answer: (b)
A Punnett square is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross.
Q18. Diadelphous stamens are found in
Correct Answer: (b)
Pea (Fabaceae) has diadelphous stamens.
Q19. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because :
Correct Answer: (b)
The probe will not bind to the mutated gene due to mismatch, hence it won't appear on film.
Q20. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
Correct Answer: (b)
Myasthenia gravis is the autoimmune disorder affecting NMJ.
Q21. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
Correct Answer: (d)
Neophron (Bird) has pneumatic bones.
Q22. Select the correct pair.
Correct Answer: (b)
Cells of medullary rays form Interfascicular cambium.
Q23. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
Correct Answer: (b)
2,4-D is a synthetic auxin widely used to remove broad leaved weeds or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops.
Q24. Identify the incorrect pair
Correct Answer: (c)
Ricin is a toxin, not a drug.
Q25. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number of chromosomes at G₁ phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
Correct Answer: (d)
Chromosome number remains 8 (DNA content doubles).
Q26. A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is:
Correct Answer: (b)
Restriction enzymes cut at Palindromic sequences.
Correct Answer: (a)
Rho factor is required for termination of transcription.
Q45. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I
Column-II
(a) Nitrococcus
(i) Denitrification
(b) Rhizobium
(ii) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite
(c) Thiobacillus
(iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
(d) Nitrobacter
(iv) Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
Correct Answer: (d)
Nitrococcus (Ammonia to Nitrite), Rhizobium (N2 Fixation), Thiobacillus (Denitrification), Nitrobacter (Nitrite to Nitrate).
Q46. Gemmae are present in
Correct Answer: (c)
Gemmae are asexual buds found in Liverworts (e.g. Marchantia).
Q47. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
Correct Answer: (c)
AB blood group has no antibodies (Anti-A or Anti-B) in plasma.
Q48. Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'. (a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol. (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Correct Answer: (b)
(b) and (c) are correct. (a) is Saturated. (d) is 16C. (e) is 20C.
Q52. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material?
Correct Answer: (d)
Ectocarpus is a brown alga (Phaeophyceae) which stores mannitol.
Q53. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
Correct Answer: (b)
ELISA is used for early diagnosis.
Q54. Which of the following is not an objective of Biofortification in crops?
Correct Answer: (a)
Biofortification targets nutrient quality, not disease resistance.
Q55. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
Correct Answer: (c)
siRNA is not directly involved in translation mechanism.
Q56. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm. (a) It serves as a covering for mouth. (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl. (c) It is one of the sensory structures. (d) It is the first body segment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Correct Answer: (d)
Prostomium is a covering, sensory, helps open cracks. Peristomium is the first segment.
Q57. The centriole undergoes duplication during:
Correct Answer: (d)
Centriole duplicates in S-phase.
Q58. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
Correct Answer: (a)
Endomembrane system includes ER, Golgi, Lysosomes, Vacuoles.
Q59. The favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli are:
Correct Answer: (d)
Oxyhaemoglobin forms at high pO2, low pCO2, low H+, low temp.
Q60. During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
Correct Answer: (a)
Chilled ethanol is used to precipitate DNA.
Q61. Which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct Answer: (a)
The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes exceeds that of phytoplankton.
Q62. Match List-I with List-II.
List - I
List - II
(a) Cells with active cell division capacity
(i) Vascular tissues
(b) Tissue having all cells similar in structure and function
(ii) Meristematic tissue
(c) Tissue having different types of cells
(iii) Sclereids
(d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls and narrow lumen
(iv) Simple tissue
Correct Answer: (d)
Active division (Meristematic), Similar cells (Simple), Different cells (Vascular), Dead cells (Sclereids).
Q63. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
Correct Answer: (d)
Middle centromere refers to Metacentric chromosome.
Q64. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?
Correct Answer: (d)
MOET uses FSH-like hormone, not LH.
Q67. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
Correct Answer: (a)
Amino acids and glucose are primary metabolites as they have identifiable functions and play known roles in normal physiological processes.
Q68. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
Correct Answer: (c)
They produce macro and micro spores, hence called Heterosporous.
Q69. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I
List-II
(a) S Phase
(i) Proteins are synthesized
(b) G2 Phase
(ii) Inactive phase
(c) Quiescent stage
(iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
Q72. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
Correct Answer: (b)
Standing state refers to the amount of inorganic nutrients in the soil.
Q73. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
Correct Answer: (d)
Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.
Q74. In the equation GPP – R = NPP R represents :
Correct Answer: (c)
In the equation GPP – R = NPP, R refers to respiratory loss. GPP is gross primary productivity and NPP is net primary productivity.
Q75. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Tight (Stop leakage), Gap (Communication).
Q76. Read the following statements (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Correct Answer: (c)
(b), (c) and (e) are correct statements.
Q77. Plants follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
Correct Answer: (b)
This phenomenon is called Plasticity (e.g., heterophylly).
Q78. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for β-galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
Correct Answer: (d)
Insertional inactivation of the ampR gene results in the loss of ampicillin resistance.
Q81. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
Correct Answer: (a)
DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses all steps in prokaryotes.
Q82. In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
Correct Answer: (a)
Sphincter of Oddi is at the hepato-pancreatic duct junction.
Q92. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
Correct Answer: (a)
RNA Pol III transcribes tRNA, 5S rRNA and snRNAs.
Q93. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
Correct Answer: (c)
Solanaceae, Rosaceae, Leguminosae have long pollen viability.
Q94. In the exponential growth equation Nₜ = N₀eʳᵗ, e represents
Correct Answer: (b)
e is the base of natural logarithms.
Q95. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. formation is produced by:
Correct Answer: (c)
JG cells of kidney produce Erythropoietin.
Q96. Which one of the following statements about Histones is wrong?
Correct Answer: (a)
Histones are basic proteins, not acidic.
Q97. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
Correct Answer: (b)
Denaturation requires high temperature.
Q98. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
Correct Answer: (d)
Xenogamy involves the transfer of pollen grains to a genetically different plant.
Q99. The first stable product of CO₂ fixation in Sorghum is
Correct Answer: (a)
Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product of CO2 fixation is Oxaloacetic acid (OAA).
Q100. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
Correct Answer: (d)
A typical angiosperm embryo sac is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.
Continue in App
For the best quiz experience and detailed performance analytics, download the Master Biology App.