Q1. Which plant has obligate relationship with a moth?
(a) Hydrilla
(b) Yucca
(c) Viola
(d) Banana
Correct Answer: (b)
Yucca and Pronuba moth are mutualistic.
Q2. Offsets are produced by
(a) Meiosis
(b) Mitosis
(c) Parthenogenesis
(d) Parthenocarpy
Correct Answer: (b)
Offsets are vegetative (mitosis).
Q3. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(a) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(b) increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females.
(c) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(d) is an IUD.
Correct Answer: (a)
Saheli contains centchroman (non-steroidal) which blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation.
Q4. Casparian strips in
(a) Epidermis
(b) Pericycle
(c) Endodermis
(d) Cortex
Correct Answer: (c)
Found in the endodermis.
Q5. Flowers only once?
(a) Bamboo
(b) Jackfruit
(c) Papaya
(d) Mango
Correct Answer: (a)
Bamboo species are monocarpic.
Q6. Unauthorised use of bioresources is
(a) Bio-infringement
(b) Biopiracy
(c) Bioexploitation
(d) Biodegradation
Correct Answer: (b)
This is called Biopiracy.
Q7. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :
(a) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(b) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(c) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(d) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
Correct Answer: (c)
Eyes of Octopus and Mammals are analogous organs (Convergent evolution), not divergent.
Q8. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug “Smack”?
(a) Flowers
(b) Latex
(c) Leaves
(d) Roots
Correct Answer: (b)
Smack (Heroin) is obtained from the latex of the unripe capsule of the Poppy plant.
Q9. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(a) AGGUAUCGCAU
(b) UGGTUTCGCAT
(c) UCCAUAGCGUA
(d) ACCUAUGCGAU
Correct Answer: (a)
Coding strand and mRNA have the same sequence, except T is replaced by U in mRNA.
Q10. Select correct match:
(a) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(b) F2 x Recessive - Dihybrid
(c) Mendel - Transformation
(d) Morgan - Transduction
Correct Answer: (a)
Ribozymes are catalytic RNA.
Q11. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it
(a) Binds to troponin to remove masking
(b) Activates myosin ATPase
(c) Prevents bond formation
(d) Detaches myosin head
Correct Answer: (a)
Calcium binds to Troponin C to unmask active sites on actin.
Q12. Variety of rice patented by US company?
(a) Co-667
(b) Sharbati Sonora
(c) Basmati
(d) Lerma Rojo
Correct Answer: (c)
Basmati was patented by RiceTec.
Q13. Match the valves:
a. Tricuspid iii. Right atrium-ventricle b. Bicuspid i. Left atrium-ventricle c. Semilunar ii. Ventricle-pulmonary artery
(a) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(c) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
(d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
Correct Answer: (a)
Tricuspid (Right), Bicuspid (Left), Semilunar (Ventricle-Artery).
Q14. Natality refers to
(a) Death rate
(b) Birth rate
(c) Entering
(d) Leaving
Correct Answer: (b)
Natality = Birth rate.
Q15. Not a product of light reaction?
(a) ATP
(b) NADH
(c) Oxygen
(d) NADPH
Correct Answer: (b)
NADH is from respiration, not light reaction.
Q16. No secondary growth in
(a) Grasses
(b) Angiosperms
(c) Cycads
(d) Conifers
Correct Answer: (a)
Grasses (monocots) lack it.
Q17. Element for turgor in cells?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Sodium
(c) Calcium
(d) Potassium
Correct Answer: (d)
Potassium (K+) regulates stomata and turgidity.
Q18. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone?
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Ecdysone
(c) Estriol
(d) Estradiol
Correct Answer: (a)
Epinephrine is derived from Tyrosine.
Q19. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II a. Proliferative Phase ii. Follicular Phase b. Secretory Phase iii. Luteal Phase c. Menstruation i. Breakdown of endometrial lining
(a) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
(c) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
Correct Answer: (d)
Proliferative Phase = Follicular Phase (ii). Secretory Phase = Luteal Phase (iii). Menstruation = Breakdown of lining (i).
Q20. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics?
(a) Commensalism
(b) Mutualism
(c) Amensalism
(d) Parasitism
Correct Answer: (c)
Antibiosis (Amensalism) is where one organism is harmed and the other is unaffected.
Q21. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
(a) ectoderm and mesoderm
(b) endoderm and mesoderm
(c) ectoderm and endoderm
(d) mesoderm and trophoblast
Correct Answer: (a)
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on the outer side and ectoderm on the inner side (Somatopleure).
Q22. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(a) Vitamin D
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin E
(d) Vitamin B₁₂
Correct Answer: (d)
LAB increases Vitamin B12 content during curd formation.
Q23. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of
(a) Homology
(b) Analogy
(c) Adaptive radiation
(d) Convergent evolution
Correct Answer: (a)
Similar structure but different function indicates Homology (Divergent evolution).
Q24. Wrongly matched?
(a) Pea starch: Multiple alleles
(b) ABO: Co-dominance
(c) Morgan: Linkage
(d) XO: Grasshopper
Correct Answer: (a)
Pea starch is pleiotropy.
Q25. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(c) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
(d) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
Correct Answer: (d)
Placenta releases hCG, hPL, estrogens and progestogens to maintain pregnancy.
Q26. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by
(a) Only daughters
(b) Only sons
(c) Both sons and daughters
(d) Only grandchildren
Correct Answer: (c)
A woman transmits X chromosomes to both sons and daughters.
Q27. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis?
(a) Chief cells
(b) Mucous cells
(c) Parietal cells
(d) Goblet cells
Correct Answer: (c)
Parietal cells secrete Intrinsic Factor for Vitamin B12 absorption.
Q28. Select the incorrect match:
(a) Lampbrush chromosomes – Diplotene
(b) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(c) Polytene chromosomes – Oocytes
(d) Submetacentric – L-shaped
Correct Answer: (c)
Polytene chromosomes are in salivary glands, not oocytes.
Q29. Many ribosomes on a single mRNA are called
(a) Polysome
(b) Polyhedral bodies
(c) Nucleosome
(d) Plastidome
Correct Answer: (a)
A group of ribosomes translating mRNA is a Polysome.
Q30. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels?
(a) Elephantiasis
(b) Ascariasis
(c) Amoebiasis
(d) Ringworm disease
Correct Answer: (a)
Elephantiasis (Filariasis) affects lymphatic vessels, transmitted by Culex mosquito.
Q31. Winged pollen in
(a) Mustard
(b) Cycas
(c) Pinus
(d) Mango
Correct Answer: (c)
Pinus has winged pollen.
Q32. Wrongly matched?
(a) Uniflagellate: Polysiphonia
(b) Biflagellate: Brown algae
(c) Unicellular: Chlorella
(d) Gemma: Marchantia
Correct Answer: (a)
Polysiphonia (Red algae) has non-motile gametes.
Q33. Vector for human lymphocytes?
(a) Retrovirus
(b) Ti plasmid
(c) pBR 322
(d) λ phage
Correct Answer: (a)
Retroviruses are used for animal cells.
Q34. Which does not occur in RER?
(a) Protein folding
(b) Glycosylation
(c) Phospholipid synthesis
(d) Cleavage of signal peptide
Correct Answer: (c)
Phospholipid synthesis occurs in the Smooth ER.
Q35. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively?
(a) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(d) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
Correct Answer: (a)
Asthma involves inflammation of bronchioles. Emphysema involves alveolar wall damage.
Q36. Secondary pollutant?
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) O3
(d) SO2
Correct Answer: (c)
Ozone (O3) is secondary.
Q37. Double fertilization is
(a) Two males + two eggs
(b) One male + two polar nuclei
(c) Syngamy and triple fusion
(d) Two males + one egg
Correct Answer: (c)
It is the combination of Syngamy and Triple Fusion.
Q38. Pollen storage temperature (Liquid N2)?
(a) –120°C
(b) –80°C
(c) –160°C
(d) –196°C
Correct Answer: (d)
Liquid nitrogen is at -196°C.
Q39. Correct PCR steps?
(a) Ext, Denat, Anneal
(b) Anneal, Ext, Denat
(c) Denat, Anneal, Ext
(d) Denat, Ext, Anneal
Correct Answer: (c)
Denaturation -> Annealing -> Extension.
Q40. In a growing population of a country,
(a) pre-reproductive individuals are more than the reproductive individuals.
(b) reproductive individuals are less than the post-reproductive individuals.
(c) pre-reproductive individuals are less than the reproductive individuals.
(d) reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are equal in number.
Correct Answer: (a)
A growing population has a broad base with more pre-reproductive individuals.
Q41. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(a) TCA cycle enzymes in matrix
(b) Glycolysis in cytosol
(c) Oxidative phosphorylation in outer membrane
(d) Glycolysis needs NAD
Correct Answer: (c)
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the inner membrane.
Q42. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis?
(a) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(b) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(c) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(d) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
Correct Answer: (d)
Deficiency of Estrogen and excess of PTH lead to bone loss.
Q43. Match taxonomic aids:
Herbarium Dried plants Key Booklet for ID Museum Preserved specimens Catalogue List of species
(a) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
(b) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(d) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Correct Answer: (c)
Matches for Herbarium, Key, Museum, Catalogue.
Q44. Correct statement:
(a) Stahl: linkage
(b) Punnett: British scientist
(c) Transduction: Altman
(d) Spliceosome: translation
Correct Answer: (b)
Reginald Punnett was British.
Q45. Match conditions:
a. Glycosuria iv. Glucose in urine b. Gout i. Uric acid in joints c. Renal calculi ii. Salt crystals d. Nephritis iii. Inflammation
(a) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Correct Answer: (c)
Definitions for glycosuria, gout, calculi and nephritis.
Q46. Correct match:
(a) Jeffreys - S. pneumoniae
(b) Hershey/Chase - TMV
(c) Jacob/Monod - Lac operon
(d) Meselson/Stahl - Peas
Correct Answer: (c)
Jacob and Monod described the Lac Operon.
Q47. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
(a) Psoriasis
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Vitiligo
(d) Alzheimer's disease
Correct Answer: (d)
Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disease (deficiency of acetylcholine), not autoimmune.
Q48. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ conservation’ except
(a) Wildlife safari parks
(b) Sacred groves
(c) Seed banks
(d) Botanical gardens
Correct Answer: (b)
Sacred groves are In-situ conservation.
Q49. Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple allele d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance
(a) b, c and e
(b) a, b and c
(c) a, c and e
(d) b, d and e
Correct Answer: (b)
ABO blood group shows Dominance (IA, IB > i), Co-dominance (IAIB), and Multiple alleles (IA, IB, i).
Q50. Match lung volumes:
a. TV iii. 500 mL b. IRV i. 2500–3000 mL c. ERV iv. 1000–1100 mL d. RV ii. 1100–1200 mL
(a) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(b) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(c) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(d) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
Correct Answer: (b)
TV (500), IRV (2500-3000), ERV (1000-1100), RV (1100-1200).
Q51. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
(a) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(b) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
(c) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(d) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
Correct Answer: (c)
Spermiogenesis is the transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa, whereas spermiation is the release of sperms from sertoli cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.
Q52. Oxygen not produced by
(a) Green sulphur bacteria
(b) Nostoc
(c) Chara
(d) Cycas
Correct Answer: (a)
Green sulphur bacteria use H2S, not H2O.
Q53. Organisation for GM safety in India?
(a) ICMR
(b) CSIR
(c) GEAC
(d) RCGM
Correct Answer: (c)
GEAC handles GM safety.
Q54. Ozone Day?
(a) 5 June
(b) 21 April
(c) 22 April
(d) 16 Sept
Correct Answer: (d)
Sept 16 is World Ozone Day.
Q55. Ozone degradation catalyst?
(a) Carbon
(b) Cl
(c) Oxygen
(d) Fe
Correct Answer: (b)
Chlorine acts as a catalyst.
Q56. Stomata not affected by?
(a) Temperature
(b) Light
(c) CO2
(d) O2
Correct Answer: (d)
O2 concentration has negligible effect.
Q57. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder?
(a) Anthracis
(b) Silicosis
(c) Emphysema
(d) Botulism
Correct Answer: (b)
Silicosis is caused by inhalation of silica dust.
Q58. Which describe human dentition?
(a) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(c) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(d) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
Correct Answer: (b)
Humans are Thecodont, Diphyodont, and Heterodont.
Q59. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by
(a) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
(b) ligaments attached to the iris
(c) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
(d) smooth muscles attached to the iris
Correct Answer: (a)
Suspensory ligaments attached to the Ciliary body hold the lens.
Q60. Pyramid type (SC:120g, PC:60g, PP:10g)?
(a) Inverted biomass
(b) Energy
(c) Upright biomass
(d) Numbers
Correct Answer: (a)
Inverted biomass (aquatic typical).
Q61. Role of NAD+ in respiration?
(a) Enzyme
(b) Electron carrier
(c) Final acceptor
(d) ATP source
Correct Answer: (b)
NAD+ acts as an electron carrier.
Q62. Ciliates differ from other protozoans in
(a) using flagella
(b) having contractile vacuole
(c) having two types of nuclei
(d) using pseudopodia
Correct Answer: (c)
Ciliates have nuclear dimorphism.
Q63. Identify male cockroach by:
(a) Boat shaped sternum
(b) Caudal styles
(c) Anal cerci
(d) Tegmina
Correct Answer: (b)
Anal (caudal) styles are present only in males.
Q64. All of the following are part of an operon except
(a) an operator
(b) structural genes
(c) a promoter
(d) an enhancer
Correct Answer: (d)
Enhancer sequences are present in eukaryotes. Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
Q65. Correct statement:
(a) Gymnosperms: naked ovules
(b) Salvinia: homosporous
(c) Unbranched: Cycas/Cedrus
(d) Horsetails: gymnosperms
Correct Answer: (a)
Gymnosperms have naked seeds.
Q66. Secondary xylem/phloem from
(a) Apical
(b) Vascular cambium
(c) Axillary
(d) Phellogen
Correct Answer: (b)
Vascular cambium produces them.
Q67. Spores exogenously in
(a) Neurospora
(b) Alternaria
(c) Saccharomyces
(d) Agaricus
Correct Answer: (d)
Agaricus produces basidiospores exogenously.
Q68. Chief producers in oceans?
(a) Dinoflagellates
(b) Diatoms
(c) Euglenoids
(d) Cyanobacteria
Correct Answer: (b)
Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans.
Q69. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is
(a) Multiple step mutations
(b) Saltation
(c) Minor mutations
(d) Phenotypic variations
Correct Answer: (b)
Hugo de Vries proposed mutation theory where evolution is a single step large mutation called Saltation.
Q70. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II:
Column-I Column-II a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient enrichment b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(b) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
(c) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Correct Answer: (d)
Eutrophication (Nutrient enrichment), Sanitary landfill (Waste disposal), Snow blindness (UV-B), Jhum cultivation (Deforestation).
Q71. Chromosomes separation begins in
(a) Pachytene
(b) Diplotene
(c) Zygotene
(d) Diakinesis
Correct Answer: (b)
Desynapsis begins in Diplotene.
Q72. Match excretory parts:
a. Ultrafiltration iv. Malpighian corpuscle b. Concentration i. Henle's loop c. Transport ii. Ureter d. Storage iii. Bladder
(a) a-iv, b-v, c-ii, d-iii
(b) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(c) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(d) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
Correct Answer: (b)
Correct matches for ultrafiltration, concentration, transport and storage.
Q73. Semiconservative replication proof first in
(a) Fungus
(b) Bacterium
(c) Virus
(d) Plant
Correct Answer: (b)
E. coli (bacterium) was used.
Q74. Identify the group with crop and gizzard
(a) Amphibia
(b) Reptilia
(c) Osteichthyes
(d) Aves
Correct Answer: (d)
Birds (Aves) have a crop and gizzard.
Q75. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(a) Proteins and lipids
(b) DNA and RNA
(c) Free ribosomes and RER
(d) Nucleic acids and SER
Correct Answer: (c)
Nissl bodies are clusters of RER and free ribosomes.
Q76. Stomata in grass leaf are
(a) Dumb-bell shaped
(b) Kidney shaped
(c) Barrel shaped
(d) Rectangular
Correct Answer: (a)
Grasses have dumb-bell shaped guard cells.
Q77. Golgi complex participates in
(a) Fatty acid breakdown
(b) Secretory vesicles
(c) Amino acid activation
(d) Bacteria respiration
Correct Answer: (b)
Golgi packages materials into secretory vesicles.
Q78. Match plasma proteins:
a. Fibrinogen ii. Clotting b. Globulin iii. Defence c. Albumin i. Osmotic balance
(a) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i
(d) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
Correct Answer: (c)
Fibrinogen-Clotting, Globulin-Defence, Albumin-Balance.
Q79. Which is incorrectly paired?
(a) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
(b) Limbic system : controls movement
(c) Corpus callosum : connects hemispheres
(d) Hypothalamus : regulation of temperature
Correct Answer: (b)
Limbic system regulates emotions, not primarily movement.
Q80. Two functional groups of sugars?
(a) Hydroxyl/Methyl
(b) Carbonyl/Methyl
(c) Carbonyl/Hydroxyl
(d) Carbonyl/Phosphate
Correct Answer: (c)
Sugars have Carbonyl and Hydroxyl groups.
Q81. Iron absorption form in plants?
(a) Ferric
(b) Ferrous
(c) Both
(d) Free element
Correct Answer: (a)
Plants absorb iron as Ferric (Fe3+).
Q82. Pneumatophores occur in
(a) Halophytes
(b) Hydrophytes
(c) Submerged
(d) Carnivorous
Correct Answer: (a)
Mangroves (Halophytes) have them.
Q83. Which does not undergo metamorphosis?
(a) Earthworm
(b) Tunicate
(c) Starfish
(d) Moth
Correct Answer: (a)
Earthworms have direct development.
Q84. True for nucleolus?
(a) Large in dividing cells
(b) Membrane bound
(c) Site for rRNA synthesis
(d) Spindle formation
Correct Answer: (c)
Nucleolus is the site for rRNA synthesis.
Q85. Sweet potato is
(a) Stem
(b) Adventitious root
(c) Rhizome
(d) Tap root
Correct Answer: (b)
It is a storage root.
Q86. Which is not a homeotherm?
(a) Macropus
(b) Chelone
(c) Psittacula
(d) Camelus
Correct Answer: (b)
Chelone (Turtle) is a reptile (poikilotherm).
Q87. Pollen preservation as fossils?
(a) Pollenkitt
(b) Intine
(c) Sporopollenin
(d) Oil content
Correct Answer: (c)
Sporopollenin is highly resistant.
Q88. Wrong statement:
(a) Cell wall in Fungi
(b) Mushrooms: Basidiomycetes
(c) Mitochondria absent in Monera
(d) Pseudopodia in Sporozoans
Correct Answer: (d)
Sporozoans lack locomotory structures.
Q89. Which is not a prokaryote?
(a) Saccharomyces
(b) Mycobacterium
(c) Oscillatoria
(d) Nostoc
Correct Answer: (a)
Saccharomyces (Yeast) is a Eukaryote.
Q90. Niche is
(a) environmental factors
(b) physical space
(c) functional role
(d) temp range
Correct Answer: (c)
Niche is the functional role.