Q8. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by :
Correct Answer: (a)
Typical for wind-pollinated flowers.
Q9. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Ascending limb is water-impermeable.
Q10. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Halophiles are Archaebacteria.
Q11. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :
Correct Answer: (a)
Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure.
Q12. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with
Correct Answer: (b)
EtBr is used to stain DNA.
Q13. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from :
Correct Answer: (b)
Drains from Intestine.
Q14. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Radial orientation of microfibrils allows the stoma to open when guard cells are turgid.
Q15. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement.
Correct Answer: (a)
Thalassemia is quantitative; Sickle cell is qualitative.
Q16. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Mendel conducted experiments from 1856-1863.
Q17. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Pancreatic juice contains amylase, lipase, and trypsinogen.
Q18. Coconut fruit is a .
Correct Answer: (c)
Coconut is a drupe.
Q19. A disease caused by an autosomal primary non-disjunction is
Correct Answer: (c)
Down's syndrome is caused by the non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome (Autosomal).
Q20. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur ?
Q21. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Possible: IAIA, IAi, IAIB, IBi (4G, 3P).
Q22. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are :
Correct Answer: (a)
Ectocarpus is haplodiplontic; Fucus is diplontic.
Q23. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of :
Correct Answer: (a)
The pivot joint is a type of synovial joint.
Q24. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in :
Correct Answer: (d)
Vertical stratification is most prominent in Rain Forests.
Q25. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as
Correct Answer: (c)
Selectable markers help identify transformants.
Q26. MALT constitutes about ____ percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
Correct Answer: (c)
MALT is 50% of lymphoid tissue.
Q27. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse' ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Order is Perissodactyla.
Q28. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by :
Q29. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ?
Correct Answer: (c)
r-RNA is ~80%.
Q30. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene-rich food. Select the best option from the following statements. (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene. (b) The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment. (c) Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A. (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments.
Correct Answer: (d)
Statements (a), (c), and (d) are correct. (b) is wrong as photopigments are in the outer segment.
Q31. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :
Q32. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood :
Correct Answer: (a)
Heartwood is non-conducting.
Q33. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
Correct Answer: (d)
Dioecious plants have male and female flowers on different plants, preventing both autogamy and geitonogamy.
Q34. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time :
Correct Answer: (a)
Humboldt described that species richness increases with area explored, up to a limit.
Q35. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ?
Correct Answer: (a)
C4 plants have a higher temperature optimum.
Q36. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the following statements. (a) Frog is a poikilotherm. (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation. (c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature. (d) Heart is autoexcitable.
Correct Answer: (b)
Heart is myogenic and autoexcitable.
Q37. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes ?
Q39. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to :
Correct Answer: (d)
Mangroves (Halophytes) show these traits.
Q40. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?
Q53. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :
Correct Answer: (d)
Growth flattens out (asymptote) when population size (N) equals carrying capacity (K).
Q54. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation :
Correct Answer: (c)
Human has 12 pairs of ribs; first 7 pairs are true ribs.
Q55. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs :
Correct Answer: (b)
Frog sperm path includes Bidder's canal and kidney.
Q56. Which of the following is made up of dead cells ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Cork (Phellem) is composed of dead cells.
Q57. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check - up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent ?
Q58. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for graft rejection.
Q59. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as :
Correct Answer: (c)
Core zone is legally protected.
Q60. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered ?
Correct Answer: (a)
(999-900)/3 = 33 codons are shifted.
Q61. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Yeast produces ethanol via fermentation.
Q62. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on :
Correct Answer: (d)
GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to release LH and FSH.
Q63. Double fertilization is exhibited by :
Correct Answer: (b)
Double fertilization is unique to Angiosperms.
Q64. Myelin sheath is produced by :
Correct Answer: (c)
Schwann (PNS) and Oligodendrocytes (CNS) produce myelin.
Q65. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Artificial Insemination used for low count.
Q66. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :
Correct Answer: (a)
Thorns in Bougainvillea are stem modifications.
Q67. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of :
Correct Answer: (b)
In Chlamydomonas, the zygote is the only diploid stage and undergoes meiosis.
Q68. Viroids differ from viruses in having .
Correct Answer: (b)
Viroids are naked RNA molecules.
Q69. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete antibacterial lysozyme ?
Q74. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is :
Correct Answer: (a)
The edible part is the endosperm.
Q75. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate :
Correct Answer: (b)
Okazaki fragments are formed on the lagging strand.
Q76. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is
Correct Answer: (a)
Both possess pharyngeal gill slits.
Q77. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Mendel did not study Trichomes. He studied 7 other specific traits.
Q78. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Cycle starts with Oxaloacetic acid, not pyruvic acid directly.
Q79. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are most appropriate explanation for this feature ? (a) They do not need to reproduce (b) They are somatic cells (c) They do not metabolize (d) All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
Correct Answer: (c)
Lack of nucleus maximizes space for Hemoglobin/Oxygen.
Q80. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :
Correct Answer: (a)
Produces secondary xylem.
Q81. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Aerosols are pollutants and generally decrease agricultural productivity.
Q82. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called
Correct Answer: (a)
Choanocytes line the spongocoel.
Q83. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into .
Correct Answer: (a)
Megaspore becomes the female gametophyte.
Q84. DNA fragments are :
Correct Answer: (d)
DNA is negatively charged.
Q85. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Mitochondria are the sites of aerobic respiration where ATP is produced.
Q86. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called
Correct Answer: (d)
Downstream processing covers purification and recovery.
Q87. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in .
Correct Answer: (d)
In C4 plants, PEP is the first acceptor of CO2.
Q88. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause the release of
Correct Answer: (d)
ANF is released in response to high blood pressure.
Q89. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates :
Correct Answer: (a)
H1 histone helps stabilize the 30nm chromatin fiber structure.
Q90. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Smaller fragments move faster through pores.
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