Q1. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
Correct Answer: (a)
The sequence is Spermatogonia (diploid) -> Spermatocyte -> Spermatid -> Spermatozoa (mature sperm).
The sequence is Spermatogonia (diploid) -> Spermatocyte -> Spermatid -> Spermatozoa (mature sperm).
Q2. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph?
Correct Answer: (d)
Only adult cockroaches possess fully functional wings.
Only adult cockroaches possess fully functional wings.
Q3. Meiosis takes place in :
Correct Answer: (b)
Meiocytes are specialized diploid cells that undergo meiosis.
Meiocytes are specialized diploid cells that undergo meiosis.
Q4. The Air Prevention and Control of Pollution Act came into force in :
Correct Answer: (c)
The Air Act was enacted in 1981 and amended in 1987 to include noise.
The Air Act was enacted in 1981 and amended in 1987 to include noise.
Q5. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of :
Correct Answer: (a)
In Chara, the female oogonium is situated above the male antheridium.
In Chara, the female oogonium is situated above the male antheridium.
Q6. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be separated by :
Correct Answer: (d)
Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
Agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on size.
Q7. A good producer of citric acid is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Aspergillus niger is the industrial fungus used for citric acid production.
Aspergillus niger is the industrial fungus used for citric acid production.
Q8. Select the correct statement with respect to locomotion in humans:
Correct Answer: (c)
Accumulation of uric acid crystals leads to Gout, characterized by joint inflammation.
Accumulation of uric acid crystals leads to Gout, characterized by joint inflammation.
Q9. Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Jaundice is a metabolic/physiological condition of the liver, not a chromosomal/genetic disorder detectable by karyotyping.
Jaundice is a metabolic/physiological condition of the liver, not a chromosomal/genetic disorder detectable by karyotyping.
Q10. The characteristics and an example of a synovial joint in humans is :-
| Characteristics | Examples |
|---|---|
| (1) lymph filled between two bones, limited movement | gliding joint between carpals |
| (2) fluid cartilage between two bones, limited movements | Knee joint |
| (3) fluid filled between two joints, provides cushion | skull bones |
| (4) fluid filled synovial cavity between two bones | joint between atlas and axis |
Correct Answer: (d)
Synovial joints are characterized by a fluid-filled synovial cavity (e.g., Pivot joint between atlas/axis).
Synovial joints are characterized by a fluid-filled synovial cavity (e.g., Pivot joint between atlas/axis).
Q11. One of the legal methods of birth control is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is a legal method under specific conditions.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is a legal method under specific conditions.
Q12. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes are :
Correct Answer: (a)
Many coenzymes (like NAD, FAD) contain vitamins like Niacin and Riboflavin.
Many coenzymes (like NAD, FAD) contain vitamins like Niacin and Riboflavin.
Q13. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptation in response to a common environmental challenge, is called :
Correct Answer: (c)
Convergent evolution produces analogous structures in unrelated species.
Convergent evolution produces analogous structures in unrelated species.
Q14. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column I with their absorption site and mechanism in column II.
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (1) Cholesterol, maltose | Large intestine, active absorption |
| (2) Glycine, glucose | small intestine, active absorption |
| (3) Fructose, Na+ | small intestine, passive absorption |
| (4) Glycerol, fatty acids | duodenum, move as chilomicrons |
Correct Answer: (b)
Glucose and amino acids (like glycine) are absorbed via active transport in the small intestine.
Glucose and amino acids (like glycine) are absorbed via active transport in the small intestine.
Q15. Match the name of the animal (column I), with one characteristics (column II), and the phylum/class (column III) to which it belongs :
| Column I | Column II | Column III |
|---|---|---|
| (1) Adamsia | radially symmetrical | Porifera |
| (2) Petromyzon | ectoparasite | Cyclostomata |
| (3) Ichthyophis | terrestrial | Reptilia |
| (4) Limulus | Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton | Pisces |
Correct Answer: (b)
Petromyzon is a jawless vertebrate (Cyclostomata) and an ectoparasite on fish.
Petromyzon is a jawless vertebrate (Cyclostomata) and an ectoparasite on fish.
Q16. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum?
Correct Answer: (d)
Prawn, Scorpion, and Locusta all belong to Phylum Arthropoda.
Prawn, Scorpion, and Locusta all belong to Phylum Arthropoda.
Q17. The figure shows a diagrammatic view of human respiratory system with labels A, B, C and D. Select the option which gives correct identification and main function and/or characteristic :-
Correct Answer: (d)
C represents Alveoli, the primary site for gaseous exchange.
C represents Alveoli, the primary site for gaseous exchange.
Q18. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of :
Correct Answer: (c)
Cycas has coralloid roots that contain nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (Anabaena/Nostoc).
Cycas has coralloid roots that contain nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria (Anabaena/Nostoc).
Q19. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants is :
Correct Answer: (c)
Nitrogenase enzyme reduces N2 directly into Ammonia (NH3).
Nitrogenase enzyme reduces N2 directly into Ammonia (NH3).
Q20. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of :
Correct Answer: (b)
A sudden drop in Progesterone causes the breakdown of the endometrium.
A sudden drop in Progesterone causes the breakdown of the endometrium.
Q21. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to :
Correct Answer: (c)
Darwin emphasized competition, particularly interspecific competition, as a driver of evolution.
Darwin emphasized competition, particularly interspecific competition, as a driver of evolution.
Q22. Which of the following criteria does not pertain to facillitated transport ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Facilitated transport is 'downhill' (passive); uphill transport requires ATP.
Facilitated transport is 'downhill' (passive); uphill transport requires ATP.
Q23. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are :
Correct Answer: (a)
Cyanobacteria lack chloroplasts but have chromatophores for photosynthesis.
Cyanobacteria lack chloroplasts but have chromatophores for photosynthesis.
Q24. Age of a tree can be estimated by :
Correct Answer: (d)
Dendrochronology uses the counting of annual growth rings (xylem) to determine age.
Dendrochronology uses the counting of annual growth rings (xylem) to determine age.
Q25. A major site for synthesis of lipids is :
Correct Answer: (c)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is the major site of lipid synthesis.
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) is the major site of lipid synthesis.
Q26. During seed germination its stored food is mobilized by :
Correct Answer: (a)
Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of alpha-amylase to mobilize starch.
Gibberellins stimulate the synthesis of alpha-amylase to mobilize starch.
Q27. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of :
Correct Answer: (b)
Hypothyroidism (Cretinism) in children is caused by iodine deficiency in the mother during pregnancy.
Hypothyroidism (Cretinism) in children is caused by iodine deficiency in the mother during pregnancy.
Q28. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This is an example of :
Correct Answer: (d)
Analogous organs have different structures but similar functions, resulting from convergent evolution.
Analogous organs have different structures but similar functions, resulting from convergent evolution.
Q29. During sewage treatment, biogases are produced which include :
Correct Answer: (b)
Anaerobic digesters produce biogas containing CH4, H2S, and CO2.
Anaerobic digesters produce biogas containing CH4, H2S, and CO2.
Q30. Global warming can be controlled by :
Correct Answer: (b)
Lowering CO2 emissions (fossil fuels) and maintaining forests are key strategies.
Lowering CO2 emissions (fossil fuels) and maintaining forests are key strategies.
Q31. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates:
Correct Answer: (d)
Meiosis and fusion of gametes result in genetic recombination and variation.
Meiosis and fusion of gametes result in genetic recombination and variation.
Q32. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is :
Correct Answer: (d)
It is a classic example of Commensalism (though often cited as Protocooperation; as per 2013 key, 4 was selected).
It is a classic example of Commensalism (though often cited as Protocooperation; as per 2013 key, 4 was selected).
Q33. Figure shows human urinary system with structures labelled A to D. Select option which correctly identifies them and gives their characteristics and/or functions.
Correct Answer: (b)
A is the adrenal gland which secretes adrenaline/noradrenaline (catecholamines).
A is the adrenal gland which secretes adrenaline/noradrenaline (catecholamines).
Q34. Which of the following is not correctly matched for the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme?
| (1) Fungi | Chitinase |
| (2) Bacteria | Lysozyme |
| (3) Plant cells | Cellulase |
| (4) Algae | Methylase |
Correct Answer: (d)
Algal cell walls are made of cellulose/galactans and degraded by cellulase, not methylase.
Algal cell walls are made of cellulose/galactans and degraded by cellulase, not methylase.
Q35. Which Mendelism idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 generation resembles both the parents ?
Correct Answer: (a)
In codominance (e.g. AB blood group), offspring show traits of both parents simultaneously.
In codominance (e.g. AB blood group), offspring show traits of both parents simultaneously.
Q36. Megasporangium is equivalent to :
Correct Answer: (a)
In gymnosperms and angiosperms, the ovule is the megasporangium.
In gymnosperms and angiosperms, the ovule is the megasporangium.
Q37. The most abundant intracellular cation is :
Correct Answer: (a)
Potassium (K+) is the major cation inside cells, while Sodium (Na+) is major outside.
Potassium (K+) is the major cation inside cells, while Sodium (Na+) is major outside.
Q38. Figure shows schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels A to D, Identify the label and give its function/s.
Correct Answer: (d)
C represents the Vena Cava, which carries deoxygenated blood back to the right atrium.
C represents the Vena Cava, which carries deoxygenated blood back to the right atrium.
Q39. Which of the following represents maximum number of species among global biodiversity ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Among these groups, Fungi have the highest number of species globally.
Among these groups, Fungi have the highest number of species globally.
Q40. Natural reservoir of phosphorus is :
Correct Answer: (d)
Phosphorus is a sedimentary cycle; rocks are the primary reservoir.
Phosphorus is a sedimentary cycle; rocks are the primary reservoir.
Q41. The Golgi complex plays a major role :
Correct Answer: (a)
Golgi complex is the primary site for glycosylation and processing of proteins/lipids.
Golgi complex is the primary site for glycosylation and processing of proteins/lipids.
Q42. A phosphoglyceride is always made up of :
Correct Answer: (d)
A phosphoglyceride consists of two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached to a glycerol backbone.
A phosphoglyceride consists of two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached to a glycerol backbone.
Q43. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant bacteria because of :
Correct Answer: (d)
Insertional inactivation of the lacZ gene prevents beta-galactosidase production, leaving colonies white.
Insertional inactivation of the lacZ gene prevents beta-galactosidase production, leaving colonies white.
Q44. Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by :
Correct Answer: (d)
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of biomass production by consumers.
Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of biomass production by consumers.
Q45. Which one of the following is not the function of placenta ? It :-
Correct Answer: (a)
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary (maternal), not the placenta.
Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary (maternal), not the placenta.
Q46. Which one of the following is not a correct statements ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Museums collect actual specimens (preserved in jars or stuffed), not just photographs.
Museums collect actual specimens (preserved in jars or stuffed), not just photographs.
Q47. Among bitter gourd, mustard, brinjal, pumpkin chinarose, lupin, cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, guava, bean, chilli, plum, petunia, tomato, rose, withania, potato, onion, aloe and tulip how many plants have hypogynous flower ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Hypogynous plants include Mustard, Brinjal, China rose, Lupin, Sunnhemp, Gram, Bean, Chilli, Petunia, Tomato, Withania, Potato, Onion, Aloe, and Tulip (15).
Hypogynous plants include Mustard, Brinjal, China rose, Lupin, Sunnhemp, Gram, Bean, Chilli, Petunia, Tomato, Withania, Potato, Onion, Aloe, and Tulip (15).
Q48. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification ?
Correct Answer: (d)
All four in option 4 are insects belonging to Phylum Arthropoda, Class Insecta.
All four in option 4 are insects belonging to Phylum Arthropoda, Class Insecta.
Q49. In plant breeding programme, the entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called :
Correct Answer: (a)
Germplasm collection is the sum total of all diverse alleles in a species.
Germplasm collection is the sum total of all diverse alleles in a species.
Q50. Artificial insemination means :
Correct Answer: (d)
AI involves introducing sperm into the vagina or uterus of the female.
AI involves introducing sperm into the vagina or uterus of the female.
Q51. Transition state structure of the substrate formed during an enzymatic reaction is :
Correct Answer: (d)
The transition state is high-energy, very short-lived (transient), and unstable.
The transition state is high-energy, very short-lived (transient), and unstable.
Q52. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to the endocrine system ?
Correct Answer: (d)
This is the classic definition of a hormone.
This is the classic definition of a hormone.
Q53. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by :
Correct Answer: (a)
Non-random mating (selective mating) disrupts the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Non-random mating (selective mating) disrupts the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Q54. Advantage of cleistogamy is :-
Correct Answer: (d)
Cleistogamous flowers never open, ensuring self-pollination without needing vectors.
Cleistogamous flowers never open, ensuring self-pollination without needing vectors.
Q55. A diagram showing axon terminal and synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two of A-D.
Correct Answer: (b)
A represents the receptors on the postsynaptic membrane; C represents synaptic vesicles.
A represents the receptors on the postsynaptic membrane; C represents synaptic vesicles.
Q56. Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?
Correct Answer: (a)
The figure shows RER (with ribosomes), which is responsible for protein synthesis.
The figure shows RER (with ribosomes), which is responsible for protein synthesis.
Q57. Perisperm differs from endosperm in:
Correct Answer: (d)
Perisperm is persistent nucellus (diploid), whereas endosperm is typically triploid (3n).
Perisperm is persistent nucellus (diploid), whereas endosperm is typically triploid (3n).
Q58. The cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by :
Correct Answer: (b)
T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
T-lymphocytes are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
Q59. If both parents are carriers for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child?
Correct Answer: (d)
Carrier cross (Tt x Tt) results in 1/4 (25%) homozygous recessive (tt) offspring.
Carrier cross (Tt x Tt) results in 1/4 (25%) homozygous recessive (tt) offspring.
Q60. In china rose the flowers are :
Correct Answer: (b)
China rose (Malvaceae) is actinomorphic, hypogynous, and shows twisted aestivation.
China rose (Malvaceae) is actinomorphic, hypogynous, and shows twisted aestivation.
Q61. Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in the diagram. Select the option which gives correct identification along with its functions/characteristics:-
Correct Answer: (b)
A identifies the Retina, which contains photoreceptor cells.
A identifies the Retina, which contains photoreceptor cells.
Q62. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Shifting cultivation is an agricultural practice, not a conservation method.
Shifting cultivation is an agricultural practice, not a conservation method.
Q63. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is :
Correct Answer: (d)
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, not dominant.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder, not dominant.
Q64. If two persons with 'AB' blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood group 'B' blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both 'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood group individuals. This is an example of :
Correct Answer: (b)
In AB blood group, both I-A and I-B alleles are expressed equally, showing codominance.
In AB blood group, both I-A and I-B alleles are expressed equally, showing codominance.
Q65. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to :
Correct Answer: (d)
H-zone is the central part of the A-band where actin (thin) filaments do not overlap myosin.
H-zone is the central part of the A-band where actin (thin) filaments do not overlap myosin.
Q66. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is found in :
Correct Answer: (c)
Spirogyra reproduces via isogamy with non-motile (non-flagellated) gametes.
Spirogyra reproduces via isogamy with non-motile (non-flagellated) gametes.
Q67. Which of the following are likely to be present in deep sea water ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Archaebacteria (thermoacidophiles/halophiles) thrive in extreme environments like hydrothermal vents.
Archaebacteria (thermoacidophiles/halophiles) thrive in extreme environments like hydrothermal vents.
Q68. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P- wave represents the :
Correct Answer: (b)
The P-wave represents atrial depolarization, which leads to atrial contraction.
The P-wave represents atrial depolarization, which leads to atrial contraction.
Q69. Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at :
Correct Answer: (b)
Kyoto Protocol was adopted at COP 3 in 1997.
Kyoto Protocol was adopted at COP 3 in 1997.
Q70. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates and proteins ?
Correct Answer: (a)
All three breakdown products eventually convert to Acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle.
All three breakdown products eventually convert to Acetyl CoA to enter the Krebs cycle.
Q71. Select the answer which correctly matches the endocrine gland with the hormone it secretes and its function/deficiency symptom :
| Endocrine gland | Hormone | Function/deficiency symptoms |
|---|---|---|
| (1) Corpus luteum | Testosterone | Stimulates spermatogenesis |
| (2) Anterior pituitary | Oxytocin | Stimulates uterus contraction during child birth |
| (3) Posterior pituitary | Growth Hormone (GH) | Oversecretion stimulates abnormal growth |
| (4) Thyroid gland | Thyroxine | Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre |
Correct Answer: (d)
Option 4 is accurate. (1) Corpus luteum makes progesterone; (2) Oxytocin is posterior; (3) GH is anterior.
Option 4 is accurate. (1) Corpus luteum makes progesterone; (2) Oxytocin is posterior; (3) GH is anterior.
Q72. Read the following statements (A – E) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(E) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct ?
Correct Answer: (d)
(a), (b), (c) are correct. (d) is wrong (moss sporophyte is more elaborate). (E) is wrong (Pinus is monoecious).
(a), (b), (c) are correct. (d) is wrong (moss sporophyte is more elaborate). (E) is wrong (Pinus is monoecious).
Q73. Seed coat is not thin, membranous in :
Correct Answer: (c)
Coconut has a thick, stony endocarp; the 'seed coat' is not a simple thin membrane.
Coconut has a thick, stony endocarp; the 'seed coat' is not a simple thin membrane.
Q74. Select the wrong statement :
Correct Answer: (d)
In Oogamy, the female gamete is large and non-motile, while the male gamete is small and motile.
In Oogamy, the female gamete is large and non-motile, while the male gamete is small and motile.
Q75. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Answer: (a)
The innermost layer of the anther wall, Tapetum, provides nutrition to pollen.
The innermost layer of the anther wall, Tapetum, provides nutrition to pollen.
Q76. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characterstics.
| (1) Telophase | Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet. |
| (2) Telophase | Nuclear envelop reforms, golgi complex reforms. |
| (3) Late anaphase | Chromosomes move a away from equatorial plate, golgi complex not present. |
| (4) Cytokinesis | Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells. |
Correct Answer: (b)
The image shows Telophase where organelles and nuclear membrane reappear.
The image shows Telophase where organelles and nuclear membrane reappear.
Q77. The diagram shows an important concept in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C :
Correct Answer: (d)
A-Transcription, B-Translation, C-Francis Crick (Central Dogma).
A-Transcription, B-Translation, C-Francis Crick (Central Dogma).
Q78. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene ?
Correct Answer: (b)
LacZ comes before LacY. A mutation in Y stops Y and A, but Z (beta-galactosidase) is already produced.
LacZ comes before LacY. A mutation in Y stops Y and A, but Z (beta-galactosidase) is already produced.
Q79. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is referred to as :
Correct Answer: (c)
Genetic drift (Sewall Wright effect) is the random change in allele frequencies.
Genetic drift (Sewall Wright effect) is the random change in allele frequencies.
Q80. Lenticels are involved in :
Correct Answer: (c)
Lenticels are pores in the bark that allow gas exchange between the stem and atmosphere.
Lenticels are pores in the bark that allow gas exchange between the stem and atmosphere.
Q81. Which of the following statements is not true of two genes that show 50% recombination frequency ?
Correct Answer: (c)
50% recombination indicates that the genes are either on different chromosomes or very far apart; they are NOT linked.
50% recombination indicates that the genes are either on different chromosomes or very far apart; they are NOT linked.
Q82. Macro molecule chitin is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Chitin is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine (contains nitrogen).
Chitin is a polymer of N-acetylglucosamine (contains nitrogen).
Q83. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. He found that the average natality was 250, average mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :
Correct Answer: (a)
(250 + 20) - (240 + 30) = 270 - 270 = 0.
(250 + 20) - (240 + 30) = 270 - 270 = 0.
Q84. Which of the following Bt crops is being grown in India by the farmers ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Bt Cotton is currently the only GM crop widely permitted for commercial cultivation in India.
Bt Cotton is currently the only GM crop widely permitted for commercial cultivation in India.
Q85. The three boxes in this diagram represent the three major biosynthetic pathways in aerobic respiration. Arrows represent net reactants or products.
Arrow numberd 4, 8 and 12 can all be :
Arrow numberd 4, 8 and 12 can all be :
Correct Answer: (c)
ATP is a net product produced in Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and ETS.
ATP is a net product produced in Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and ETS.
Q86. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of:
Correct Answer: (b)
Medullary ray cells become meristematic to form interfascicular cambium during secondary growth.
Medullary ray cells become meristematic to form interfascicular cambium during secondary growth.
Q87. Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Fragmentation is the breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores like earthworms.
Fragmentation is the breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by detritivores like earthworms.
Q88. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by :
Correct Answer: (b)
Ascaris is transmitted via the feco-oral route through contaminated food or water.
Ascaris is transmitted via the feco-oral route through contaminated food or water.
Q89. The complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is called :
Correct Answer: (d)
A pair of synapsed chromosomes is called a Bivalent (or tetrad).
A pair of synapsed chromosomes is called a Bivalent (or tetrad).
Q90. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is :
Correct Answer: (c)
Silverfish (Lepisma) is a wingless insect belonging to Arthropoda.
Silverfish (Lepisma) is a wingless insect belonging to Arthropoda.