Q1. Viruses have :
Correct Answer: (a)
Viruses consist of genetic material (DNA or RNA, never both) inside a protein coat (capsid).
Viruses consist of genetic material (DNA or RNA, never both) inside a protein coat (capsid).
Q2. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would most likely disrupt :
Correct Answer: (d)
Hypothalamus contains centers for thermoregulation, hunger, and thirst.
Hypothalamus contains centers for thermoregulation, hunger, and thirst.
Q3. Deficiency symotoms of nitrogen and potassium are visible first in :
Correct Answer: (a)
N and K are mobile elements; they move from old (senescent) leaves to young leaves, so old leaves show deficiency first.
N and K are mobile elements; they move from old (senescent) leaves to young leaves, so old leaves show deficiency first.
Q4. Fight – or – flight reactions cause activation of :
Correct Answer: (c)
Catecholamines from the adrenal medulla trigger the 'fight or flight' response.
Catecholamines from the adrenal medulla trigger the 'fight or flight' response.
Q5. A few normal seedlings of tomato were kept in a dark room. After a few days they were found to have become while – coloured like alinos. Which of the following terms will you use to describe them?
Correct Answer: (c)
Growth in the absence of light resulting in pale color and long weak stems is etiolation.
Growth in the absence of light resulting in pale color and long weak stems is etiolation.
Q6. Which one of the following statement is correct ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Maize (a monocot) has a specialized protein layer called the aleurone layer surrounding the endosperm.
Maize (a monocot) has a specialized protein layer called the aleurone layer surrounding the endosperm.
Q7. An analysis of chromosomal DNA using the southern hybridization technique does not use:
Correct Answer: (d)
Southern Blotting uses electrophoresis, transfer (blotting), and probe hybridization with autoradiography. It does not inherently require PCR.
Southern Blotting uses electrophoresis, transfer (blotting), and probe hybridization with autoradiography. It does not inherently require PCR.
Q8. Select the option which is not correct with respect to enzyme action :
Correct Answer: (b)
Competitive inhibition (malonate/succinate) can be reversed by increasing substrate concentration.
Competitive inhibition (malonate/succinate) can be reversed by increasing substrate concentration.
Q9. Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is shown below?
Correct Answer: (a)
The image is of Datura, which is a hallucinogen.
The image is of Datura, which is a hallucinogen.
Q10. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin activity in a normal pregnant female :
Correct Answer: (c)
hCG maintains the corpus luteum, ensuring continued estrogen and progesterone production.
hCG maintains the corpus luteum, ensuring continued estrogen and progesterone production.
Q11. Match the following and select the correct answer :
| (a) Centriole | (i) Infoldings in mitochondria |
| (b) Chlorophyll | (ii) Thaylakoids |
| (c) Cristae | (iii) Nucleic acids |
| (d) Ribozymes | (iv) basal body cilia or flagella |
Correct Answer: (a)
Centriole forms basal bodies; Chlorophyll is in thylakoids; Cristae are mitochondrial infoldings; Ribozymes are catalytic nucleic acids.
Centriole forms basal bodies; Chlorophyll is in thylakoids; Cristae are mitochondrial infoldings; Ribozymes are catalytic nucleic acids.
Q12. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :
Correct Answer: (a)
Tubectomy involves cutting/tying the fallopian tubes.
Tubectomy involves cutting/tying the fallopian tubes.
Q13. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Chlorella and Spirulina are single-cell proteins used as food supplements.
Chlorella and Spirulina are single-cell proteins used as food supplements.
Q14. The solid linear cyroskeltal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type of monomer are known as :
Correct Answer: (b)
Microfilaments (Actin filaments) have a diameter of approx 6-7 nm.
Microfilaments (Actin filaments) have a diameter of approx 6-7 nm.
Q15. Select the correct matching of the type of the joint with the example in human skeletal system :
| Type of joint | Example |
|---|---|
| (1) Carilaginous joint | Between frontal and paraiental |
| (2) Pivot joint | Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae |
| (3) Hinge joint | Between humerus and pectoral girdle |
| (4) Gliding joint | Between carpals |
Correct Answer: (d)
Gliding joints are between carpals. Pivot is between Atlas/Axis; Hinge is at knee/elbow.
Gliding joints are between carpals. Pivot is between Atlas/Axis; Hinge is at knee/elbow.
Q16. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in:
Correct Answer: (c)
Angiosperms (Lilium) have the most highly reduced male gametophyte (3 cells).
Angiosperms (Lilium) have the most highly reduced male gametophyte (3 cells).
Q17. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species :
Correct Answer: (d)
Cnidaria includes Hydra (freshwater) and Jellyfish (marine). Others are exclusively marine.
Cnidaria includes Hydra (freshwater) and Jellyfish (marine). Others are exclusively marine.
Q18. Choose the correctly matched pair :
Correct Answer: (c)
PCT and DCT are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium.
PCT and DCT are lined by simple cuboidal epithelium.
Q19. Fruit colour in squash is an example of :
Correct Answer: (b)
The 12:3:1 ratio in squash color is a classic case of dominant epistasis.
The 12:3:1 ratio in squash color is a classic case of dominant epistasis.
Q20. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four portions (A-D) represent respectively?
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (1) | Insects | Crustaceans | Other animal groups | Molluscs |
| (2) | Crustaceans | Insects | Molluscs | Other animal groups |
| (3) | Molluscs | Other animal groups | Crustaceans | Insects |
| (4) | Insects | Molluscs | Crustaceanus | Other animal groups |
Correct Answer: (d)
In invertebrates: A-Insects (majority), B-Molluscs, C-Crustaceans, D-Other animal groups.
In invertebrates: A-Insects (majority), B-Molluscs, C-Crustaceans, D-Other animal groups.
Q21. A human female with Turner’s syndrome :
Correct Answer: (a)
Turner's syndrome is monosomy (45, XO).
Turner's syndrome is monosomy (45, XO).
Q22. In ‘s’ phase of the cell cycle
Correct Answer: (a)
DNA replication occurs in S-phase, doubling the DNA content per cell.
DNA replication occurs in S-phase, doubling the DNA content per cell.
Q23. A species facing exrtremely high risk of extinction in the immediate fucture is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
IUCN defines Critically Endangered as the highest risk level before extinction.
IUCN defines Critically Endangered as the highest risk level before extinction.
Q24. Which one of the following is wrong about chara?
Correct Answer: (c)
In Chara, the oogonium (nucule) is located above the antheridium (globule). Statement 3 is the inverse and therefore wrong.
In Chara, the oogonium (nucule) is located above the antheridium (globule). Statement 3 is the inverse and therefore wrong.
Q25. Which one of the following growth regulators is known as ‘ stress hormone’?
Correct Answer: (a)
ABA is called the stress hormone as it induces stomatal closure during water stress.
ABA is called the stress hormone as it induces stomatal closure during water stress.
Q26. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology is :
Correct Answer: (a)
Humulin (Insulin) was the first recombinant product.
Humulin (Insulin) was the first recombinant product.
Q27. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of :
Correct Answer: (b)
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) involves zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) transfer into fallopian tube.
ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) involves zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) transfer into fallopian tube.
Q28. If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock as food in the following chain?
Plant → mice → snake → peacock
Plant → mice → snake → peacock
Correct Answer: (a)
Using Lindeman's 10% rule: Plant(20J) -> Mouse(2J) -> Snake(0.2J) -> Peacock(0.02J).
Using Lindeman's 10% rule: Plant(20J) -> Mouse(2J) -> Snake(0.2J) -> Peacock(0.02J).
Q29. Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has :
Correct Answer: (a)
AB group lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma.
AB group lacks anti-A and anti-B antibodies in plasma.
Q30. Just as a person moving from Delhi to shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to :
Correct Answer: (d)
Keolado National Park (Bharatpur) hosts migratory birds from Siberia.
Keolado National Park (Bharatpur) hosts migratory birds from Siberia.
Q31. Choose the correctly matched pair :
Correct Answer: (c)
Areolar and Adipose are types of Loose Connective Tissue.
Areolar and Adipose are types of Loose Connective Tissue.
Q32. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Sphagnum (Peat Moss) accumulates and forms peat over long periods.
Sphagnum (Peat Moss) accumulates and forms peat over long periods.
Q33. The zone of atmosphere in which the ozone layer is present is called :
Correct Answer: (c)
The 'Good Ozone' is located in the Stratosphere.
The 'Good Ozone' is located in the Stratosphere.
Q34. Transoformation was discovered by :
Correct Answer: (c)
Frederick Griffith discovered transformation using Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Frederick Griffith discovered transformation using Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Q35. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by:
Correct Answer: (b)
Vacuoles contain cell sap and maintain turgor pressure via osmosis.
Vacuoles contain cell sap and maintain turgor pressure via osmosis.
Q36. Which of the following is a hormone releasing intra Uterine Device (IUD)
Correct Answer: (b)
LNG-20 (levonorgestrel) is a hormone-releasing IUD.
LNG-20 (levonorgestrel) is a hormone-releasing IUD.
Q37. To obtain virus – free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture techinique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
Correct Answer: (c)
The apical and axillary meristems are generally virus-free due to rapid cell division.
The apical and axillary meristems are generally virus-free due to rapid cell division.
Q38. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Torpedo (Electric Ray) has electric organs derived from muscles.
Torpedo (Electric Ray) has electric organs derived from muscles.
Q39. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomers ?
Correct Answer: (b)
TMV consists of a single-stranded RNA coiled inside a capsid made of capsomers.
TMV consists of a single-stranded RNA coiled inside a capsid made of capsomers.
Q40. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :
Correct Answer: (a)
Whittaker's classification was based on cell structure complexity, body organization, mode of nutrition, life style, and phylogenetic relationships. The specific 'presence/absence of a nucleus' was the basis for the earlier 2-kingdom systems or 4-kingdom systems distinguishing prokaryotes/eukaryotes, but not the primary driver of the 5th kingdom's separation.
Whittaker's classification was based on cell structure complexity, body organization, mode of nutrition, life style, and phylogenetic relationships. The specific 'presence/absence of a nucleus' was the basis for the earlier 2-kingdom systems or 4-kingdom systems distinguishing prokaryotes/eukaryotes, but not the primary driver of the 5th kingdom's separation.
Q41. Which structure perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria?
Correct Answer: (d)
Mesosomes are infoldings of the plasma membrane in bacteria that contain respiratory enzymes.
Mesosomes are infoldings of the plasma membrane in bacteria that contain respiratory enzymes.
Q42. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non – flagellated gamets ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Spirogyra produces non-motile (non-flagellated) gametes that are similar in size (isogamy).
Spirogyra produces non-motile (non-flagellated) gametes that are similar in size (isogamy).
Q43. An example of edible underground stem is :
Correct Answer: (d)
Potato is a modified underground stem (tuber). Carrot and Sweet potato are modified roots.
Potato is a modified underground stem (tuber). Carrot and Sweet potato are modified roots.
Q44. At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symtoms of AIDS ?
Correct Answer: (c)
AIDS symptoms appear when the CD4+ T-cell count drops significantly.
AIDS symptoms appear when the CD4+ T-cell count drops significantly.
Q45. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleptile were removed and placed on agar for one hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut-coleptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment ?
Correct Answer: (b)
The Avena curvature test (Went's experiment) allows bioassay to quantify auxin concentration.
The Avena curvature test (Went's experiment) allows bioassay to quantify auxin concentration.
Q46. Match the following and select the correct option :
| (a) Earthworm | (i) Pioneer species |
| (b) Succession | (ii) Detritivore |
| (c) Ecosystem service | (iii) Natality |
| (d) Population growth | (iv) Pollination |
Correct Answer: (d)
Earthworm (Detritivore), Succession (Pioneer), Ecosystem service (Pollination), Pop growth (Natality).
Earthworm (Detritivore), Succession (Pioneer), Ecosystem service (Pollination), Pop growth (Natality).
Q47. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
Correct Answer: (c)
Roots have exarch protoxylem, while stems have endarch protoxylem.
Roots have exarch protoxylem, while stems have endarch protoxylem.
Q48. Non – albuminous seed is produced in :
Correct Answer: (d)
Pea is a dicot with non-albuminous (non-endospermic) seeds.
Pea is a dicot with non-albuminous (non-endospermic) seeds.
Q49. A man whose father was colur blind marries a woman who had a colour bline mother and normal father. What percentage of male children of this couple will be colour blind ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Woman is a carrier (XCX). Man is normal (XY). Offspring males: 50% chance of inheriting XC (colorblind).
Woman is a carrier (XCX). Man is normal (XY). Offspring males: 50% chance of inheriting XC (colorblind).
Q50. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are :
Correct Answer: (b)
Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes and Yeast Artificial Chromosomes handle large human DNA inserts.
Bacterial Artificial Chromosomes and Yeast Artificial Chromosomes handle large human DNA inserts.
Q51. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes:
Correct Answer: (a)
Scrubbers remove gases like SO2 by passing exhaust through a spray of water or lime.
Scrubbers remove gases like SO2 by passing exhaust through a spray of water or lime.
Q52. Fructose is abosorbed bed into the blood through mucosa cells of intenstine by the process called :
Correct Answer: (b)
Fructose absorption occurs via facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins.
Fructose absorption occurs via facilitated diffusion using carrier proteins.
Q53. Which one of the following are analogues structures ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Pigeon wings (feathers) and Bat wings (skin) have different anatomy but same function (flight).
Pigeon wings (feathers) and Bat wings (skin) have different anatomy but same function (flight).
Q54. In which one of the following processes CO2 is not released ?
Correct Answer: (d)
Lactic acid fermentation converts pyruvate to lactate without releasing CO2.
Lactic acid fermentation converts pyruvate to lactate without releasing CO2.
Q55. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular direction, the condition is termed as :
Correct Answer: (b)
Imbricate aestivation is when margins overlap but not in a regular clockwise or anti-clockwise pattern.
Imbricate aestivation is when margins overlap but not in a regular clockwise or anti-clockwise pattern.
Q56. A location with luxuriant growth of lichens on the trees indicates that the
Correct Answer: (d)
Lichens are bioindicators; they are extremely sensitive to SO2 and do not grow in polluted areas.
Lichens are bioindicators; they are extremely sensitive to SO2 and do not grow in polluted areas.
Q57. Function of filiform apparatus is to
Correct Answer: (d)
The filiform apparatus in the synergids guides the pollen tube into the embryo sac.
The filiform apparatus in the synergids guides the pollen tube into the embryo sac.
Q58. Tracherids differ from other tracheray elements in :
Correct Answer: (b)
Tracheids are imperforate (lacking open ends/perforation plates), unlike vessel members.
Tracheids are imperforate (lacking open ends/perforation plates), unlike vessel members.
Q59. Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reasorption in te distal convoluted tubule ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the DCT and collecting duct.
Aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the DCT and collecting duct.
Q60. The intial step in the digestion of milk in human is carried out by ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Rennin curdles milk in infants to facilitate protein digestion.
Rennin curdles milk in infants to facilitate protein digestion.
Q61. Which one of the following is a non – reducing carbohydrate?
Correct Answer: (b)
Sucrose has its reducing groups (glucose C1 and fructose C2) involved in glycosidic linkage.
Sucrose has its reducing groups (glucose C1 and fructose C2) involved in glycosidic linkage.
Q62. Stimulation of a muscle fiber by a motor neuron occurs at :
Correct Answer: (a)
Signals are transmitted across the Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ).
Signals are transmitted across the Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ).
Q63. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in:
Correct Answer: (c)
In tomato, the entire fruit wall (pericarp) and the placentae are consumed.
In tomato, the entire fruit wall (pericarp) and the placentae are consumed.
Q64. Identify the hormone with its correct matching of source and function :
Correct Answer: (b)
Melatonin from the pineal gland controls the circadian rhythm.
Melatonin from the pineal gland controls the circadian rhythm.
Q65. During which phase (s) of cell cycle, amound of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the intial amount is denoted as 2C?
Correct Answer: (d)
After S-phase (replication), DNA is 4C. It remains 4C throughout G2 and Metaphase of Mitosis.
After S-phase (replication), DNA is 4C. It remains 4C throughout G2 and Metaphase of Mitosis.
Q66. In vitro propagation in plants is characterized by :
Correct Answer: (a)
Micropropagation/In vitro propagation often uses molecular markers like RAPD (via PCR) to check genetic fidelity.
Micropropagation/In vitro propagation often uses molecular markers like RAPD (via PCR) to check genetic fidelity.
Q67. Geitonogamy involves
Correct Answer: (a)
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower on the same plant.
Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen to the stigma of another flower on the same plant.
Q68. Which vector can clone only small fragment of DNA ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Plasmids usually hold fragments up to 10kb; BAC and YAC hold hundreds of kb.
Plasmids usually hold fragments up to 10kb; BAC and YAC hold hundreds of kb.
Q69. Given below is a simplified model of phosphorus cycling in a terrestrial ecosystem with four blanks (A-D) identify the blanks.
| A | B | C | D | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (1) | Rock minerals | Detritus | Litter Fall | Producers |
| (2) | Litter fall | Producers | Rock Minerals | Detritus |
| (3) | Detritus | Rock minerals | Producer | Litter fall |
| (4) | Producers | Litter fall | Rock Minerals | Detritus |
Correct Answer: (c)
Based on the phosphorus cycle diagram: A-Detritus, B-Rock minerals, C-Producer, D-Litter fall.
Based on the phosphorus cycle diagram: A-Detritus, B-Rock minerals, C-Producer, D-Litter fall.
Q70. An example of ex situ conservation is :
Correct Answer: (b)
Seed banks preserve germplasm outside natural habitats (Ex-situ).
Seed banks preserve germplasm outside natural habitats (Ex-situ).
Q71. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in :
Correct Answer: (a)
Archaebacteria have branched chain lipids in their cell membranes, which allows them to survive in extreme environments.
Archaebacteria have branched chain lipids in their cell membranes, which allows them to survive in extreme environments.
Q72. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa the and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this date, the frequency of allele a in the population is :
Correct Answer: (a)
Frequency of 'a' = (160 * 2 + 480) / 2000 = 800/2000 = 0.4.
Frequency of 'a' = (160 * 2 + 480) / 2000 = 800/2000 = 0.4.
Q73. Which one of the following is wrongely matched
Correct Answer: (a)
Transcription is specifically the synthesis of RNA (usually mRNA) from DNA; tRNA is also transcribed, but the primary mismatch is the broad generalization compared to translation.
Transcription is specifically the synthesis of RNA (usually mRNA) from DNA; tRNA is also transcribed, but the primary mismatch is the broad generalization compared to translation.
Q74. The enzyme recombines is required at which stage of meiosis :
Correct Answer: (a)
Crossing over (recombination) occurs in Pachytene.
Crossing over (recombination) occurs in Pachytene.
Q75. Approximately seventy percent of carbon – dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs :
Correct Answer: (a)
70% of CO2 is carried as Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-).
70% of CO2 is carried as Bicarbonate ions (HCO3-).
Q76. Pollen tablets are available in tha market for:
Correct Answer: (c)
Pollen is rich in nutrients and used as a food supplement in some regions.
Pollen is rich in nutrients and used as a food supplement in some regions.
Q77. Select the correct option :
| Direction of RNA Synthesis | Direction of reading of the template DNA strand | |
|---|---|---|
| (1) | 5’ – 3’ | 3’ – 5’ |
| (2) | 3’ – 5’ | 5’ – 3’ |
| (3) | 5’ – 3’ | 5’ – 3’ |
| (4) | 3’ – 5’ | 3’ – 5’ |
Correct Answer: (a)
RNA is synthesized 5' to 3'; the DNA template is read 3' to 5'.
RNA is synthesized 5' to 3'; the DNA template is read 3' to 5'.
Q78. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from:
Correct Answer: (b)
Aggregate fruits (e.g., raspberry) develop from multiple free ovaries (apocarpous) of a single flower.
Aggregate fruits (e.g., raspberry) develop from multiple free ovaries (apocarpous) of a single flower.
Q79. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Amanita muscaria contains muscimol and ibotenic acid, which have hallucinogenic properties.
Amanita muscaria contains muscimol and ibotenic acid, which have hallucinogenic properties.
Q80. Planaria posses high capacity of :
Correct Answer: (b)
Planaria can regenerate a whole individual from a small piece.
Planaria can regenerate a whole individual from a small piece.
Q81. Anoxygric photosynthesis Is characterstics of :
Correct Answer: (a)
Rhodospirillum (purple non-sulfur bacteria) performs anoxygenic photosynthesis.
Rhodospirillum (purple non-sulfur bacteria) performs anoxygenic photosynthesis.
Q82. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to produce :
Correct Answer: (b)
Corpus luteum primarily secretes progesterone to maintain pregnancy.
Corpus luteum primarily secretes progesterone to maintain pregnancy.
Q83. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks of cells wall ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Gorgonia is an animal (Cnidaria), and animal cells lack cell walls.
Gorgonia is an animal (Cnidaria), and animal cells lack cell walls.
Q84. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
Correct Answer: (c)
Retinal is an aldehyde of Vitamin A, not Vitamin C.
Retinal is an aldehyde of Vitamin A, not Vitamin C.
Q85. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart ?
Correct Answer: (a)
Vagus nerve (parasympathetic) releases ACh to slow down heart activity.
Vagus nerve (parasympathetic) releases ACh to slow down heart activity.
Q86. The shared terminal duct of the productive and urinary syste In the human ale is :
Correct Answer: (a)
In males, the urethra carries both urine and semen.
In males, the urethra carries both urine and semen.
Q87. The motile bacteria are able to move by :
Correct Answer: (b)
Bacterial flagella provide motility.
Bacterial flagella provide motility.
Q88. What gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters ?
Correct Answer: (b)
Microbes in sludge digesters produce Methane, CO2, and H2S.
Microbes in sludge digesters produce Methane, CO2, and H2S.
Q89. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking forelimbs of whale used n swimming and forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of :
Correct Answer: (c)
They have same anatomical origin but different functions.
They have same anatomical origin but different functions.
Q90. The organization which publishes the Red list of species is :
Correct Answer: (b)
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) publishes the Red Data Book.
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) publishes the Red Data Book.