Q2. Match the female reproductive regions in Column-I with their features in Column-II:
Column-I (Region)
Column-II (Feature)
A. Infundibulum
(I) Narrow lumen joining uterus
B. Fimbriae
(II) Wider part of oviduct
C. Ampulla
(III) Funnel-shaped part
D. Isthmus
(IV) Finger-like projections
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.2 descriptions.
Q3. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20:
Correct Answer: (b)
The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into 15-20 mammary lobes.
Q4. Match the terms with their definitions:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Insemination
(I) Release of sperms from tubules
B. Spermiation
(II) Transfer of sperms to female tract
C. Ovulation
(III) Release of ovum from ovary
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions provided in Section 2.3.
Q5. The cap-like structure at the anterior portion of the sperm head is the:
Correct Answer: (b)
The anterior portion of the sperm head is covered by a cap-like structure, acrosome.
Q6. Which hormone is responsible for strong uterine contractions during childbirth?
Correct Answer: (b)
Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions.
Q7. Seminal plasma is rich in:
Correct Answer: (b)
Secretions of male accessory glands constitute the seminal plasma which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.
Q8. The structure that provides a functional link between the foetus and maternal body is:
Correct Answer: (b)
The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated... and jointly form a structural and functional unit... called placenta.
Q9. Match the following for fertilization barriers:
Layer
Location
A. Zona pellucida
(I) Outer layer of cells
B. Corona radiata
(II) Membrane directly surrounding ovum
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Figure 2.10.
Q10. Assertion: Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue.
Reason: It produces several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogens, and progestogens.
Correct Answer: (a)
Hormone production is the defining characteristic of endocrine tissue.
Q11. Match the sperm structures with their contents:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Head
(I) Mitochondria
B. Middle piece
(II) Haploid nucleus
C. Acrosome
(III) Enzymes for fertilisation
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Figure 2.6 and text.
Q12. Assertion: Implantation leads to pregnancy.
Reason: The blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.
Correct Answer: (a)
Embedding of the blastocyst is the definition of implantation.
Q13. Identify correct features of 'Relaxin': (i) Peptide hormone. (ii) Produced in later phase of pregnancy. (iii) Secreted by the ovary.
Correct Answer: (a)
Relaxin is an ovarian hormone (also placental source) produced during pregnancy.
Q14. Assertion: The middle piece of the sperm is called the powerhouse of the sperm.
Reason: It possesses numerous mitochondria which produce energy for the movement of the tail.
Correct Answer: (a)
Mitochondria in the middle piece provide the energy for motility.
Q15. Match the following for parturition:
Term
Meaning
A. Parturition
(I) Childbirth
B. Gestation period
(II) Average duration of pregnancy
Correct Answer: (a)
Definitions from Section 2.7.
Q16. Assertion: Spermatogonia are diploid.
Reason: They are gamete mother cells present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Being mother cells doesn't explain ploidy, though both are true.
Q17. Regarding the placenta: (i) It supplies oxygen and nutrients to the embryo. (ii) It removes carbon dioxide and waste. (iii) It secretes hCG, hPL, and estrogens.
Correct Answer: (a)
Placenta is vital for both metabolic exchange and endocrine support.
Q18. Identify the correct phylum/group being described? (i) They produce 2500 to 3000 ova at a time (Not humans). (ii) No functional connection between ovaries and kidneys (Human).
Correct Answer: (b)
Screenshot 15, Q20: A human ovary releases one egg (usually), but the text (Section 2.15) mentions 2500-3000 as a contrast/question for other animals. (Note: NCERT text states human ovaries are situated near kidneys but have no functional connection).
Q19. Match the uterine layers with descriptions:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Perimetrium
(I) Inner glandular layer
B. Myometrium
(II) Middle thick muscle
C. Endometrium
(III) External thin membrane
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.2.
Q20. Assertion: The lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy.
Reason: Menstruation only occurs if the released ovum is not fertilised.
Correct Answer: (a)
Fertilisation maintains the corpus luteum and progesterone, preventing the breakdown of the endometrium.
Q21. Assertion: Primary follicles contain a primary oocyte.
Reason: A large number of these follicles degenerate from birth to puberty.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true structural/temporal facts about the ovary.
Q22. The middle thick muscular layer of the uterus is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
The middle thick layer of smooth muscle is the myometrium.
Q23. Which hormone acts on the Leydig cells to stimulate secretion of androgens?
Correct Answer: (c)
LH acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
Q24. Match the embryonic milestones:
Month
Event
1st Month
(I) First movements
2nd Month
(II) Heart is formed
5th Month
(III) Limbs and digits
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.6 descriptions.
Q25. Regarding 'Mammary Lobes': (i) 15-20 per breast. (ii) Contain clusters of cells called alveoli. (iii) Alveoli secrete milk.
Correct Answer: (a)
Functional anatomy of the mammary gland.
Q26. Match the following for Female Genitalia:
Part
Feature
A. Mons pubis
(I) Fleshy folds of tissue
B. Labia majora
(II) Tiny finger-like structure
C. Clitoris
(III) Cushion of fatty tissue
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.2 descriptions.
Q27. Which are correct for the 'Leydig cells'? (i) Found in interstitial spaces. (ii) Secrete androgens. (iii) Found inside seminiferous tubules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Leydig cells are outside the tubules in the interstitial spaces.
Q28. Assertion: Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) inhibits gastric secretion.
Reason: GIP is a hormone of the gastrointestinal tract.
Correct Answer: (a)
Function vs classification.
Q29. Assertion: Only one sperm can fertilise an ovum.
Reason: During fertilisation, a sperm induces changes in the zona pellucida that block the entry of additional sperms.
Correct Answer: (a)
The block to polyspermy ensures a diploid zygote.
Q30. Correct statements for 'Corpus Luteum': (i) Formed from ruptured Graafian follicle. (ii) Secretes large amounts of progesterone. (iii) Degenerates if fertilisation does not occur.
Correct Answer: (a)
The corpus luteum's lifespan is tied directly to the fertilisation status of the ovum.
Q31. The funnel-shaped part of the fallopian tube closer to the ovary is the:
Correct Answer: (c)
The part closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum.
Q32. Which of the following is correct? (i) Fertilisation is the fusion of sperm and ovum. (ii) Zygote is diploid. (iii) Insemination leads to fertilisation.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sequence of early reproductive events.
Q33. Match the mammary gland parts in sequence (Internal to External):
Step
Structure
1st
Alveoli
2nd
Mammary tubules/ducts
3rd
Mammary ampulla
4th
Lactiferous duct
Correct Answer: (a)
Pathway of milk as described in Section 2.2.
Q34. Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is called:
Correct Answer: (c)
Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is termed insemination.
Q35. Assertion: The LH surge induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle.
Reason: LH and FSH reach a peak level in the middle of the cycle.
Correct Answer: (a)
The peak level of LH (surge) is the direct trigger for ovulation.
Q36. Assertion: Not all copulations lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
Reason: Fertilisation can only occur if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the ampullary region.
Correct Answer: (a)
The timing and location must match for successful fusion.
Q37. Match the cells with their ploidy:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Spermatogonia
(I) Haploid (n)
B. Primary spermatocytes
(II) Diploid (2n)
C. Spermatids
(III) Diploid (2n)
Correct Answer: (a)
Note: Both Spermatogonia and Primary Spermatocytes are 2n; Spermatids are n.
Q38. Select the correct statements for oogenesis: (i) Initiated during embryonic development. (ii) Tertiary follicle has a fluid-filled cavity (antrum). (iii) Graafian follicle releases a secondary oocyte.
Correct Answer: (a)
All points are characteristically true for female gamete development.
Q39. Which cells provide nutrition to the male germ cells?
Correct Answer: (c)
Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
Q40. Assertion: The morula continues to divide and transforms into a blastocyst.
Reason: The blastocyst moves further into the uterus.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are sequential events in embryonic passage.
Q41. Assertion: The presence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.
Reason: The hymen can be broken by a sudden fall, jolt, or active participation in sports.
Correct Answer: (a)
Physical activities other than coitus can rupture the hymen.
Q42. Identify true statements for 'Secondary Oocyte': (i) Retains bulk of nutrient-rich cytoplasm. (ii) Formed after meiosis I. (iii) Surrounded by zona pellucida.
Correct Answer: (a)
Asymmetrical division during meiosis I ensures the egg has adequate resources.
Q43. Match the embryonic layers with their types:
Column-I (Layer)
Column-II (Type)
A. Ectoderm
(I) Inner layer
B. Mesoderm
(II) Outer layer
C. Endoderm
(III) Middle layer
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard embryonic layer positions.
Q44. Which of the following is correct? (i) Sperm formation continues in old men. (ii) Ovum formation ceases around age 50 in women. (iii) Humans are sexually reproducing and viviparous.
Correct Answer: (a)
Basic reproductive contrasts between human sexes.
Q45. Assertion: Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage.
Reason: No more oogonia are formed and added after birth.
Correct Answer: (a)
The total number of potential eggs is determined before birth.
Q46. In spermatogenesis, the first meiotic division leads to the formation of:
Correct Answer: (c)
A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division leading to formation of two equal, haploid secondary spermatocytes.
Q47. Each testis has about ______ compartments called testicular lobules.
Correct Answer: (b)
Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules.
Q48. The stroma of the ovary is divided into two zones:
Correct Answer: (b)
The ovarian stroma is divided into two zones – a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.
Q49. Assertion: The sex of the baby is determined by the mother.
Reason: Humans females have XY sex chromosomes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Sex is determined by the father (X or Y sperm); females are XX.
Q50. Match the male reproductive structures in Column-I with their descriptions in Column-II:
Column-I (Structure)
Column-II (Description)
A. Testicular lobules
(I) One to three highly coiled tubes
B. Seminiferous tubules
(II) 250 compartments per testis
C. Leydig cells
(III) Present in intertubular spaces
D. Sertoli cells
(IV) Provide nutrition to germ cells
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.1 descriptions.
Q51. Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle is called:
Correct Answer: (a)
Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the mid-cycle called LH surge induces rupture of Graafian follicle.
Q52. Which layer of the uterus undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle?
Correct Answer: (c)
The endometrium undergoes cyclical changes during the menstrual cycle.
Q53. Oogenesis is initiated during:
Correct Answer: (c)
Oogenesis is initiated during the embryonic development stage when a couple of million gamete mother cells are formed within each fetal ovary.
Q54. Assertion: Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of oxytocin.
Reason: Oxytocin is released from the maternal pituitary.
Correct Answer: (a)
The reflex is the trigger, and the pituitary is the source.
Q55. Identify the correct statements regarding the male reproductive system: (i) Testes are located in the pelvis region. (ii) Scrotum maintains a temperature lower than body temperature. (iii) Each testis has 250 seminiferous tubules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is incorrect; each testis has 250 testicular lobules, and each lobule has 1-3 seminiferous tubules.
Q56. The process of transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa is:
Correct Answer: (b)
The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis.
Q57. The process of formation of gametes is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The reproductive events in humans include formation of gametes (gametogenesis).
Q58. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum.
Q59. Assertion: Male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions to form sperms.
Reason: Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true facts about seminiferous tubules, but the nutrition provided by Sertoli cells is not the reason why germ cells undergo meiosis.
Q60. The signals for parturition originate from:
Correct Answer: (c)
The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta.
Q61. Match the following for Male Glands:
Gland
Count
A. Seminal vesicle
(I) Paired
B. Prostate
(II) Paired
C. Bulbourethral
(III) Single (Unpaired)
Correct Answer: (a)
Prostate is single; others are paired.
Q62. Assertion: The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone.
Reason: Progesterone is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are true facts, but the necessity for the endometrium doesn't explain why the corpus luteum is the source.
Q63. Assertion: The human male ejaculates 200 to 300 million sperms during a coitus.
Reason: For normal fertility, at least 40 per cent of these must show vigorous motility.
Correct Answer: (a)
Both are physiological requirements for fertility, but motility requirement doesn't explain the number ejaculated.
Q64. Regarding the menstrual cycle: (i) Menarche is the first menstruation. (ii) LH surge induces ovulation on the 14th day. (iii) Progesterone is secreted by the corpus luteum.
Correct Answer: (a)
These are the standard hormonal and temporal markers of the cycle.
Q65. Assertion: Relaxin is a hormone produced only during pregnancy.
Reason: It is secreted by the ovary in the later phase of pregnancy.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the site of secretion (ovary) does not explain why it is only produced during pregnancy.
Q66. Assertion: Mammary glands are integrated with the female reproductive system.
Reason: They support the processes of child care.
Correct Answer: (a)
Functional integration supports the offspring after birth.
Q67. Match the hormones with their source glands:
Column-I (Hormone)
Column-II (Source)
A. GnRH
(I) Maternal Pituitary
B. LH & FSH
(II) Hypothalamus
C. Oxytocin
(III) Anterior Pituitary
D. Relaxin
(IV) Ovary (Placenta context)
Correct Answer: (a)
Endocrine sources as per the text.
Q68. Match the phases of the menstrual cycle with events:
Column-I (Phase)
Column-II (Event)
A. Menstrual phase
(I) Regeneration of endometrium
B. Follicular phase
(II) Formation of corpus luteum
C. Luteal phase
(III) Breakdown of endometrium
Correct Answer: (a)
Based on Section 2.4 and Figure 2.9.
Q69. Identify the correct statements for fertilisation: (i) Takes place in the ampullary-isthmic junction (or ampulla). (ii) Only one sperm can fertilise the ovum. (iii) Acrosome secretions help the sperm enter the ovum.
Correct Answer: (a)
These points define the mechanism and location of human fertilisation.
Q70. The male external genitalia is the:
Correct Answer: (c)
The penis is the male external genitalia.
Q71. Match the placental hormones with their functions:
Column-I
Column-II
A. hCG & hPL
(I) Pregnancy maintenance
B. Progestogens
(II) Support fetal growth
C. Relaxin
(III) Facilitate parturition
Correct Answer: (a)
Broad functional categories of pregnancy hormones.
Q72. Select correct statements for 'Menopause': (i) Cessation of menstrual cycles. (ii) Occurs around 50 years of age. (iii) Indicator of normal reproductive phase.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is incorrect; cyclic menstruation is the indicator, and menopause is its end.
Q73. Which are correct for 'Blastocyst' implantation? (i) Trophoblast attaches to endometrium. (ii) Inner cell mass differentiates into embryo. (iii) Uterine cells divide rapidly to cover blastocyst.
Correct Answer: (a)
The process and participants of implantation.
Q74. Which of the following are correct regarding spermatogenesis? (i) Initiated at puberty due to increase in GnRH. (ii) Primary spermatocytes are haploid. (iii) LH acts on Leydig cells to stimulate androgens.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (ii) is incorrect; primary spermatocytes are diploid (2n).
Q76. Assertion: Secondary spermatocytes are haploid.
Reason: They are formed after the first meiotic division of diploid primary spermatocytes.
Correct Answer: (a)
Meiosis I is the reduction division.
Q77. Assertion: Fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
Reason: Haploid gametes fuse to form a diploid zygote.
Correct Answer: (a)
Fusion of n + n = 2n.
Q78. Select the correct statements for parturition: (i) Induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism. (ii) Foetal ejection reflex triggers oxytocin release. (iii) Gestation period in humans is about 9 months.
Correct Answer: (a)
Childbirth is a coordinated process involving maternal and foetal signals.
Q79. Match the Following for Chromosomes:
Cell
Chromosome Count
A. Human Somatic Cell
(I) 46
B. Human Gamete
(II) 23
Correct Answer: (a)
Diploids have 46; haploids have 23.
Q80. Which of the following phylum/group characteristics is being described? (i) They are sexually reproducing and viviparous. (ii) Male and female reproductive systems are distinct. (iii) Fertilisation and development are internal.
Correct Answer: (c)
Humans are sexually reproducing, viviparous, and have internal fertilisation.
Q81. The temperature of the testes is maintained at:
Correct Answer: (b)
The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5° C lower than the normal internal body temperature).
Q82. Regarding 'Stem Cells': (i) Present in the inner cell mass. (ii) Have potency to give rise to all tissues/organs. (iii) Only found in adults.
Correct Answer: (a)
Stem cells are identified in the embryonic inner cell mass.
Q83. Which are correct for 'Spermiation'? (i) Release of sperms from Sertoli cells. (ii) Occurs after spermiogenesis. (iii) Results in release from seminiferous tubules.
Correct Answer: (a)
Definition from Section 2.3.
Q84. Assertion: Colostrum is absolutely essential for newborn babies.
Reason: It contains several antibodies to develop resistance.
Correct Answer: (a)
Passive immunity is provided by antibodies in colostrum.
Q85. Which hormone is secreted only during pregnancy in women?
Correct Answer: (c)
hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Q86. Fertilisation in humans usually takes place in the:
Correct Answer: (c)
The ovum released by the ovary is also transported to the ampullary region where fertilisation takes place.
Q87. Regarding the structure of sperm: (i) Middle piece contains mitochondria for energy. (ii) Head contains an elongated haploid nucleus. (iii) Tail facilitates sperm motility.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard morphological facts about the human male gamete.
Q88. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche.
Q89. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a:
Correct Answer: (b)
The embryo with 8 to 16 daughter cells is called a morula.
Q90. The finger-like projections of the infundibulum are called:
Correct Answer: (b)
The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae.
Q91. The sex of the embryo is determined by the:
Correct Answer: (b)
Scientificially it is correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother (due to X or Y chromosome in sperm).
Q92. Assertion: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum.
Reason: Scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes necessary for spermatogenesis.
Correct Answer: (a)
Spermatogenesis requires a temperature lower than the normal body temperature.
Q93. The fluid-filled cavity characteristic of a tertiary follicle is the:
Correct Answer: (b)
The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a fluid filled cavity called antrum.
Q94. Regarding the female reproductive system, which are true? (i) Ovaries are primary female sex organs. (ii) Ovarian stroma is divided into cortex and medulla. (iii) Fallopian tubes are 10-12 cm long.
Correct Answer: (a)
All points are standard anatomical facts for the female system.
Q95. The Leydig cells secrete testicular hormones called:
Correct Answer: (b)
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.
Q96. Which are correct regarding lactation? (i) Mammary glands undergo differentiation during pregnancy. (ii) Colostrum is rich in antibodies. (iii) Breast-feeding is recommended for infant health.
Correct Answer: (a)
Post-partum care and nutrition involve these biological highlights.
Q97. Match the follicle stage with features:
Column-I
Column-II
A. Primary follicle
(I) Antrum present
B. Secondary follicle
(II) Primary oocyte + granulosa
C. Tertiary follicle
(III) More granulosa + new theca
Correct Answer: (a)
Follicular development descriptions in Section 2.3.
Q98. Regarding the 'Testis' structure: (i) Oval in shape. (ii) 4-5 cm length, 2-3 cm width. (iii) Covered by a dense covering.
Correct Answer: (a)
Standard measurements from Section 2.1.
Q99. Which statements regarding embryonic development are true? (i) Morula has 8-16 blastomeres. (ii) Implantation occurs at the blastocyst stage. (iii) Trophoblast is the inner layer of cells in the blastocyst.
Correct Answer: (a)
Statement (iii) is incorrect; Trophoblast is the outer layer; the inner group is the 'inner cell mass'.
Q100. Assertion: Cleavage refers to the mitotic divisions of the zygote.
Reason: It results in daughter cells called blastomeres.
Correct Answer: (b)
Both are true, but the formation of blastomeres is the result, not the 'reason' for the division being called cleavage.
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